Practice Question
A 38-year-old has Hgb 8.9 g/dL, MCV 68 fL, ferritin 7 ng/mL (low) despite 3 months of adherent oral iron + vitamin C. What's the most appropriate management?
Answer Choices:
Correct Answer:
Initiate IV iron repletion and assess other micronutrients
Rationale:
🔹 Failure to respond to well-taken oral iron suggests malabsorption, intolerance, or ongoing blood loss.
🔹 IV iron bypasses the GI tract, allowing rapid replenishment of iron stores.
🔹 Assessing B12, folate, and evaluating for malabsorption or occult blood loss is important.
🔹 Transfusion is reserved for hemodynamic instability or very severe symptomatic anemia, not as sole iron replacement.
❌ Incorrect Options
❌ Transfuse to ≥12 → 💉 Over-treatment if stable; does not correct iron stores.
❌ Continue oral iron → 🔁 Already ineffective.
❌Enteric-coated → 🧃 Absorbs less, not more.
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This question is from MIDTERM EXAM FALL 2025 which contains 97 questions.
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Question Details
- Category: RN Nursing Exam(s)
- Subcategory: General Exams
- Domain: Adult Health Exams 🏯
- Answer Choices: 4