Practice Question
A 7-year-old presents with four impetigo lesions on the arm. Which is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Answer Choices:
Correct Answer:
Mupirocin ointment BID × 5 days
Rationale:
🔹 Mupirocin is the first-line treatment for localized, non-bullous impetigo caused by Strep pyogenes and Staph aureus.
🔹 Topical therapy is preferred when lesions are few because it avoids unnecessary systemic antibiotic exposure.
🔹 Mupirocin has excellent cutaneous penetration and strong activity against the common pathogens of pediatric impetigo.
🔹 A short 5-day course is highly effective and minimizes resistance risk, making it guideline-supported and safe.
❌ Incorrect Options
🔹 Bacitracin – Poor activity against Strep; not recommended for impetigo.
🔹 Cephalexin – Reserved for extensive or systemic cases; unnecessary here.
🔹 TMP-SMZ – Poor Strep coverage; not first-line for classic impetigo.
Want to practice more questions like this?
This question is from Pharmacology Exam 2 2025 which contains 51 questions.
More Questions from This Exam
A patient with HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) is transitioning from an ACE inhibitor (ACEI) to sacubitril/valsartan (ARNI). What is the safest transition strategy?
Answer Choices:
A 34-year-old woman who is breastfeeding presents with nipple candidiasis. Which is the safest recommended treatment?
Answer Choices:
Which statement best describes the clinical use of topical penciclovir?
Answer Choices:
Which topical retinoid is contraindicated in pregnancy due to systemic metabolism to active compounds?
Answer Choices:
A 16-year-old patient started tretinoin for acne but reports significant dryness and peeling. Which is the most appropriate recommendation?
Answer Choices:
Question Details
- Category: RN Nursing Exam(s)
- Subcategory: General Exams
- Domain: 🚑Pharmacology
- Answer Choices: 4