Practice Question
The nurse is assessing a client who has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with hypertensive emergency. Which of the following is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
Answer Choices:
Correct Answer:
The client cannot move there left arm or leg when asked to do so.
Rationale:
⚠️ Sudden unilateral weakness may indicate an acute stroke or brain bleed.
⚠️ It is an emergency in a patient with hypertensive crisis.
⚠️ Requires immediate neuro evaluation and CT scan.
⚠️ High BP increases risk for cerebral hemorrhage or ischemia.
⚠️ Other symptoms like headache or tremor are less urgent than neurologic deficits.
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This question is from Med sur 2 Exam-ICHS which contains 55 questions.
More Questions from This Exam
While working in the outpatient clinic, the nurse notes that the client has a history of intermittent claudication. Which statement by the client would support this information?
Answer Choices:
A. "My legs cramp when I walk more than a block."
B. "I get short of breath when I climb a lot of stairs."
C. "When I stand for too long, my feet start to swell."
D. "My fingers hurt when I go outside in cold weather."
Which information about continuous bladder irrigation will the nurse teach to a client who is being admitted for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?
Answer Choices:
A. Hydration and urine output are maintained by bladder irrigation.
B. Bladder irrigation prevents obstruction of the catheter after surgery.
C. Bladder irrigation decreases the risk of postoperative bleeding.
D. Antibiotics are infused continuously through the bladder irrigation.
A client admitted to a medical - surgical unit has a CBC with differential drawn. Lab results show a WBC count of 4000, with neutrophil segments at 5% and neutrophil bands at 5%. Based on these values what would the nurse do? Calculate the absolute neutrophil count
Answer Choices:
A. Place the client on bleeding precautions.
B. Place the client in a private room.
C. Document findings in the client's chart
D. Collect blood cultures and start antibiotics.
A client who has tested positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis Jiroveci Pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T - Cell count of less than 200 cells/ ul. Based on the diagnostic criteria established by the Centers of Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is correct?
Answer Choices:
A. "The client meets the criteria for the chronic asymptomatic HIV infection phase."
B. "The clients CD4+ T cell count is within normal range."
C. "The client meets the criteria for the acute HIV infection phase."
D. "The client has developed Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)."
A client who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the client may have been taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that client will receive which antidote?
Answer Choices:
A. Potassium chloride
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin K
D. Protamine sulfate
Question Details
- Category: RN Nursing Exam(s)
- Subcategory: General Exams
- Domain: Medical-surgical📚
- Answer Choices: 4
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