Practice Question
A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Answer Choices:
Correct Answer:
Human papilloma virus (HPV).
Rationale:
🧬 HPV, particularly high-risk types like 16 and 18, is the most significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
🧬 Persistent infection leads to cervical dysplasia, which may progress to cancer if not detected and treated early.
🧬 Postmenopausal bleeding and abdominal pain are concerning symptoms, often prompting further screening like a Pap smear.
🧬 HPV vaccination and routine Pap testing are essential for prevention and early detection.
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This question is from HESI-RN Patho~Pharmacology which contains 51 questions.
More Questions from This Exam
A client received midazolam 2 mg and morphine sulfate 4 mg for a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse positions the client on the right side and monitors the vital signs. Which is the physiological reason for the nurse's intervention?
Answer Choices:
A. Provide pressure over the biopsy site.
B. Keep the client from aspirating.
C. Lessen the amount of post procedure pain
D. Facilitate pulmonary expansion
A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) develops a gangrenous toe and is admitted for possible amputation. Which pathophysiological consequence of DM has contributed to this client's complication?
Answer Choices:
A. Chronic kidney disease.
B. Diabetic retinopathy.
C. Peripheral neuropathy.
D. Hypertension.
An older male reports to the clinic nurse that he sometimes feels chest pressure and becomes breathless. He further describes an event where he had to sit for about one hour before he felt better. He is asymptomatic at rest, but is concerned that he has had a heart attack. This clinical picture is consistent with which cardiac ischemic event?
Answer Choices:
A. Myocardial infarction.
B. Unstable angina.
C. Stable angina.
D. Prinz metal angina.
Two days after admission for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), an older client's arterial blood gas (ABC) indicate an acid base imbalance. The client's laboratory results reveal a low hemoglobin level, an elevated creatinine clearance, and decreased urine specific gravity. Which is the most likely cause for the acid base imbalance?
Answer Choices:
A. Myocardial infarction one year ago.
B. Occasional use of antacids.
C. Chronic renal insufficiency.
D. Shortness of breath with exertion.
A client is being treated for a gastric ulcer caused by Heliobacter pylori. The nurse should prepare the client for long term follow-up to which associated problem?
Answer Choices:
A. Gastric carcinoma.
B. Hypokalemia.
C. Kidney stones.
D. Celiac disease.
Question Details
- Category: RN Nursing Exam(s)
- Subcategory: HESI Exam(s)
- Domain: Hesi Pharmacology
- Answer Choices: 4
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