Practice Question
What is the primary goal of antihypertensive therapy in patients with hypertension?
Answer Choices:
Correct Answer:
To achieve blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events
Rationale:
🟠 Goal is long-term management, not cure.
🟠 Reduces risk of stroke, MI, and kidney disease.
🟠 Complete elimination of medication is rare and individualized.
🟠 Achieving BP <120/80 may not be feasible for all clients.
🟠 Consistent therapy maintains vascular health and prevents complications.
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This question is from Custom NUR 411 EXAM MJ which contains 57 questions.
More Questions from This Exam
A patient with heart failure is being evaluated for suitability for beta-blocker therapy. Which clinical criteria would most strongly contraindicate the initiation of beta-blockers in this patient?
Answer Choices:
A. History of peripheral vascular disease
B. Severe bradycardia
C. Presence of mild renal insufficiency
D. Presence of stable angina
A nurse receives a unit of packed RBCs from a blood bank and notes that the time is 1130. The nurse should begin the infusion at which of the following times?
Answer Choices:
A. As soon as the nurse can prepare the client and the administration set
B. When the client has finished eating lunch
C. 2 hr after obtaining blood from the blood bank
D. When the client states he is ready to start the infusion
A nurse is monitoring a client who reports having chills and back pain during a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions is nurse's priority?
Answer Choices:
A. Covering the client with a blanket
B. Stopping the transfusion
C. Assessing the client's skin for a rash
D. Notifying the provider
A nurse receives a unit of packed RBCs from a blood bank and notes that the time is 1130. The nurse should begin the infusion at which of the following times?
Answer Choices:
A. 2 hr after obtaining blood from the blood bank
B. When the client states he is ready to start the infusion
C. When the client has finished eating lunch
D. As soon as the nurse can prepare the client and the administration set
A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Answer Choices:
A. "DIC is caused by abnormal coagulation."
B. "DIC is characterized by an elevated platelet count."
C. "DIC is controllable with lifelong heparin usage."
D. "DIC is a genetic disorder involving a vitamin K deficiency."
Question Details
- Category: RN Nursing Exam(s)
- Subcategory: ATI Exam(s)
- Domain: RN Custom Exam(s)
- Answer Choices: 4