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Practice Question

The nurse assesses an adult client with a history of Addison disease presenting with severe nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The client's blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg and the nurse notes hyperpigmentation of the skin. Based on the client's presentation, which is the priority intervention?

Answer Choices:

Correct Answer:

Administer a parenteral corticosteroid medication

Rationale:

🌿 Severe nausea, vomiting, hypotension, and hyperpigmentation indicate an Addisonian crisis requiring immediate steroid replacement.

🌿 Parenteral corticosteroids (hydrocortisone IV) are lifesaving because they replace missing cortisol.

🌿 Low cortisol leads to vascular collapse, so rapid steroid administration restores blood pressure.

🌿 Steroids also correct electrolyte abnormalities, especially hyperkalemia and hyponatremia.

🌿 This intervention treats the ** underlying cause**, not just symptoms.

Administer an antiemetic

🌿 Does not treat the life-threatening cortisol deficiency.

🌿 Only manages symptoms.

Assess skin for a rash

🌿 Skin changes are expected in Addison disease and not priority.

🌿 Does not address shock.

Assess breathing pattern

🌿 Assessment is important but does not correct hypotension or crisis.

🌿 Steroids must be given first.

Want to practice more questions like this?

This question is from ATI Custom LPN Pharm II NSG 2310 Exam 2 Fall 2025 which contains 84 questions.

More Questions from This Exam
A client diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is prescribed a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) machine and mask. The nurse understands which is a benefit of using CPAP? (Select all that apply.)

Answer Choices:

A. Improves quality of sleep.
B. Reduces daytime sleepiness.
C. Lowers risk of stroke.
D. Prevents hypertension.
E. Lowers serum cholesterol.
An older adult client is admitted with right-sided hemiparesis, slurred speech, and confusion, and is diagnosed with a stroke. The client has a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation, and currently takes warfarin. Vital signs are: BP 185/60 mmHg, P 120 beats/minute, and R 18 breaths/minute. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. Which health care provider order does the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

Answer Choices:

A. Administer a loading dose of aspirin.
B. Administer a beta-blocker medication.
C. Initiate a continuous heparin infusion.
D. Transfer to radiology for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the head.
E. Obtain the client's international normalized ratio (INR).
F. Prepare the client for emergency cardioversion.
with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The technician tells the nurse the Allen test is positive before the ABG is done. Which interpretation by the nurse is correct?

Answer Choices:

A. The health care provider should be notified immediately.
B. There is good blood flow in the ulnar artery.
C. Blood flow in the radial artery is insufficient.
D. Blood flow in the femoral artery is good.
The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with viral hepatitis. Which increased laboratory result is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Answer Choices:

A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 2,600 U/L (43.42 mckat/L).
B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) of 2,200 U/L (36.74 mckat/L).
C. Platelet count of 460,000/mcl (460×10⁹/L).
D. Ammonia level of 55 mcg/dL (39.27 mcmol/L).
From Exam
ATI Custom LPN Pharm II NSG 2310 Exam 2 Fall 2025

84 Questions

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Question Details
  • Category: LPN Nursing Exam(s)
  • Subcategory: LPN ATI Exams
  • Domain: Pharmacology
  • Answer Choices: 4
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