Question

A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is scheduled for an ultrasound. Which of the following would not be a reason for an ultrasound at this stage?

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Determine fetal position.

Rationale :

🟢 Determining fetal position is not a purpose of first-trimester ultrasound, as the fetus is still small, mobile, and has not yet assumed a fixed position in the uterus.

🟢 Fetal position assessments are typically done in the third trimester, closer to delivery, when presentation (e.g., vertex, breech) becomes clinically relevant.

🟢 In the first trimester, ultrasound is used to:

✅ Confirm intrauterine pregnancy

✅ Estimate gestational age

✅ Detect multiple gestations

✅ Evaluate maternal pelvic anatomy

🟢 Maternal abnormalities, like uterine anomalies or fibroids, may also be visualized during early scans.

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Answer 2

Correct Answers:

Reactive nonstress test (NST).

Rationale :

💠 A reactive NST is defined by at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR) in 20 minutes, each increasing by ≥15 beats per minute and lasting for ≥15 seconds in a fetus ≥32 weeks.

💠 This fetal tracing showed three accelerations of 15×15, indicating good fetal oxygenation and intact CNS responsiveness.

💠 A nonstress test (NST) is non-invasive and done without inducing uterine contractions, making it different from contraction stress tests (CST).

💠 No contractions were introduced, so this test is not a CST (eliminating choices A and C).

💠 Non-reactive NST refers to absent or insufficient accelerations and would be a concerning finding requiring further evaluation.

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Answer 3

Correct Answers:

Negative.

Rationale :

✴ A contraction stress test (CST) evaluates fetal well-being in response to stress from uterine contractions.

✴ A negative CST means there are no late decelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR) with contractions — indicating adequate placental perfusion and fetal tolerance of labor.

✴ In this case, the client had contractions every 3 minutes (which is adequate) and no FHR decelerations, qualifying as a negative result.

✴ A positive CST would show late decelerations with 50% or more of contractions.

✴ An unsatisfactory CST occurs when contractions are too infrequent or tracing is inadequate, which is not the case here.

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Answer 4

Correct Answers:

“Joining a support group can be beneficial. I can provide some recommendations.”

Rationale :

💠 Support groups offer a safe space for individuals or couples to share experiences, gain emotional insight, and feel less isolated during the infertility journey.

💠 Infertility is often emotionally taxing and can lead to stress, anxiety, or depression. Professional support systems, including peer groups or therapy, have proven benefits for coping.

💠 The nurse’s role includes providing resources and encouraging healthy coping mechanisms, such as connecting with others who are navigating similar struggles in a structured, supportive environment.

💠 Suggesting a support group is a therapeutic communication technique and respects the couple’s privacy and autonomy.

💠 Other options may not be as universally helpful or may place undue pressure on the couple or limit their support sources unnecessarily.

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Answer 5

Correct Answers:

Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse.

Rationale :

🔶 Family history of neural tube defects (NTDs) significantly increases the risk of fetal anomalies, particularly if folic acid intake is inadequate during early pregnancy.

🔶 Low BMI (<18.5) is associated with poor nutritional status, which is a risk factor for adverse pregnancy outcomes including fetal growth restriction and increased risk for NTDs due to potential folate deficiency.

🔶 Cocaine and alcohol use are well-established teratogens. Their use during pregnancy is linked to miscarriage, preterm labor, placental abruption, low birth weight, and developmental defects.

🔶 Although the patient is 24 years old (which is within the low-risk age range for pregnancy), her lifestyle factors and family history significantly elevate her risk profile.

🔶 Blood pressure of 108/70 mm Hg and age 24 are normal and not risk factors in this context.

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Answer 6

Correct Answers:

Urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours.

Rationale :

💠 The oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) is characterized by a marked reduction in urine output, typically less than 400 mL per day. This phase reflects severely impaired glomerular filtration.

💠 In this phase, the kidneys retain metabolic wastes, electrolytes (especially potassium), and fluids, leading to complications such as hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and fluid overload.

💠 Despite low urine output, urine production does not stop completely — this distinguishes oliguria from anuria, where UO is <100 mL/day.

💠 Close monitoring of intake and output (I&O) is critical during this phase for early identification of renal recovery or deterioration.

💠 Management includes fluid restriction, monitoring serum electrolytes, and sometimes dialysis if complications occur.

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Answer 7

Correct Answers:

“I can receive the Cytotec as long as my water hasn’t broken yet.”

Rationale :

🔷 Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a prostaglandin analog used for cervical ripening and labor induction, but it is not recommended for use in clients with ruptured membranes. Administration in such cases increases the risk of uterine hyperstimulation and infection.

🔷 The statement in Option A indicates a misunderstanding, as Cytotec is contraindicated once membranes have ruptured.

🔷 Clients can walk after administration to aid labor progression, provided there are no contraindications and continuous fetal monitoring is in place.

🔷 Monitoring the baby’s heart rate and contraction pattern is essential due to the risk of uterine tachysystole, which may compromise fetal oxygenation.

🔷 Gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea and vomiting, are common with prostaglandins and are expected.

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Answer 8

Correct Answers:

The test examines maternal alpha-fetoprotein to determine if the levels are high or low, indicating specific disorders.

Rationale :

💠 The quad screen test is a maternal blood test performed during the second trimester (typically between 15–20 weeks’ gestation). It screens for certain fetal abnormalities, not diagnoses them.

💠 The test measures four substances in maternal serum:

• Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

• Estriol

• Inhibin A

💠 High levels of AFP may indicate neural tube defects like spina bifida.

Low levels of AFP may suggest Down syndrome (trisomy 21) or trisomy 18.

💠 The test is noninvasive and based on maternal blood, not fetal tissue or DNA. It does not determine gender.

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Answer 9

Correct Answers:

It’s a screening test for trisomy 21.

Rationale :

✴️ A fetal nuchal translucency test is a noninvasive screening performed by ultrasound, typically between 11 and 14 weeks’ gestation, during the first trimester.

✴️ It measures the fluid-filled space at the back of the fetus's neck. Increased nuchal translucency (usually greater than 3 mm) may be associated with chromosomal abnormalities such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), trisomy 18, or trisomy 13.

✴️ This test is not diagnostic but used in conjunction with first-trimester blood tests to assess genetic risk.

✴️ A normal measurement is typically less than 3 mm; values greater than 3 mm are considered abnormal.

✴️ The test is done in the first trimester, not second, and does not screen for neural tube defects.

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Answer 10

Correct Answers:

Prostaglandins

Rationale :

💠 Prostaglandins (such as misoprostol or dinoprostone) are commonly used agents for cervical ripening and labor induction, especially when the cervix is not yet favorable (low Bishop score). They help soften, thin, and dilate the cervix to facilitate labor.

💠 These medications may be administered intravaginally or orally and are typically used before or in conjunction with oxytocin to induce labor.

💠 Episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum during delivery, not a method to induce labor.

💠 Amnioinfusion involves the infusion of fluid into the amniotic sac, often used to relieve umbilical cord compression or dilute meconium-stained fluid, not to induce labor.

💠 Since prostaglandins are standard and effective means for initiating labor, especially in the early stages, they are the correct adjunct to oxytocin in labor induction.

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Indiana University OB-Maternal exam 3

No.

1 :
A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is scheduled for an ultrasound. Which of the following would not be a reason for an ultrasound at this stage?

2 :
A pregnant client, who is 35 weeks along, comes in for weekly fetal heart monitoring. After 20 minutes on the monitor, the fetal heart rate tracing shows three accelerations measuring 15 beats by 15 seconds. How should the nurse report this finding to the provider?

3 :
A pregnant client is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is experiencing contractions every three minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is approximately 120 beats/min with no decelerations. How should the nurse document this test?

4 :
A couple is struggling with infertility and wants to know how to maintain their emotional balance. Which response from the nurse would be most appropriate?

6 :
During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, which of the following occurs?

7 :
A client, who is 39 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to the hospital for induction. The doctor has prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?

8 :
A pregnant client is undergoing a quad screen test and inquires about the possible results. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

9 :
A pregnant client is at the prenatal clinic for a fetal nuchal translucency test. What does the nurse understand about this test?.

10 :
In addition to oxytocin (Pitocin) administration, what other methods can induce labor?

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Indiana University OB-Maternal exam 3

No.

1 : A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is scheduled for an ultrasound. Which of the following would not be a reason for an ultrasound at this stage?

2 : A pregnant client, who is 35 weeks along, comes in for weekly fetal heart monitoring. After 20 minutes on the monitor, the fetal heart rate tracing shows three accelerations measuring 15 beats by 15 seconds. How should the nurse report this finding to the provider?

3 : A pregnant client is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is experiencing contractions every three minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is approximately 120 beats/min with no decelerations. How should the nurse document this test?

4 : A couple is struggling with infertility and wants to know how to maintain their emotional balance. Which response from the nurse would be most appropriate?

6 : During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, which of the following occurs?

7 : A client, who is 39 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to the hospital for induction. The doctor has prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?

8 : A pregnant client is undergoing a quad screen test and inquires about the possible results. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

9 : A pregnant client is at the prenatal clinic for a fetal nuchal translucency test. What does the nurse understand about this test?.

10 : In addition to oxytocin (Pitocin) administration, what other methods can induce labor?

1 :
A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is scheduled for an ultrasound. Which of the following would not be a reason for an ultrasound at this stage?

2 :
A pregnant client, who is 35 weeks along, comes in for weekly fetal heart monitoring. After 20 minutes on the monitor, the fetal heart rate tracing shows three accelerations measuring 15 beats by 15 seconds. How should the nurse report this finding to the provider?

3 :
A pregnant client is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is experiencing contractions every three minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is approximately 120 beats/min with no decelerations. How should the nurse document this test?

4 :
A couple is struggling with infertility and wants to know how to maintain their emotional balance. Which response from the nurse would be most appropriate?

6 :
During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, which of the following occurs?

7 :
A client, who is 39 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to the hospital for induction. The doctor has prescribed misoprostol (Cytotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further education?

8 :
A pregnant client is undergoing a quad screen test and inquires about the possible results. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

9 :
A pregnant client is at the prenatal clinic for a fetal nuchal translucency test. What does the nurse understand about this test?.

10 :
In addition to oxytocin (Pitocin) administration, what other methods can induce labor?