1 :

Hint : 🧠Seizure prevention in preeclampsia

Correct Answers:

  • It decreases the risk of seizures


Rationale :

🔷 Magnesium sulfate is administered in preeclampsia primarily for seizure prophylaxis, not for controlling blood pressure.

🔷 It acts as a central nervous system depressant, helping to prevent the progression to eclampsia.

🔷 Magnesium sulfate does not treat hypertension directly, though its CNS effects may indirectly reduce blood pressure.

🔷 Clinical signs such as headache and blurred vision are signs of worsening preeclampsia; magnesium does not treat these symptoms directly but prevents seizure progression.

🔷 Close monitoring of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, and urinary output is essential due to magnesium’s narrow therapeutic window.


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2 :

Hint : 🌞Jaundice after 24 hours

Correct Answers:

  • Physiologic jaundice


Rationale :

💎 Physiologic jaundice typically appears after the first 24 hours of life, most often peaking around 48 to 72 hours, making it the likely diagnosis.

💎 It occurs due to the immature liver unable to process bilirubin quickly enough, leading to mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

💎 Treatment usually includes phototherapy or biliblanket use and increased feedings to promote bilirubin excretion.

💎 It is not usually harmful and resolves without long-term consequences if managed appropriately.

💎 Unlike pathologic jaundice, which appears within the first 24 hours, physiologic jaundice follows a normal postnatal trajectory


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3 :

Hint : 👶Late decel = reposition & oxygen

Correct Answers:

  • Turn the patient to her side.
  • Provide 2-3 liters of oxygen via mask
  • Notify the health care provider.
  • Stop the oxytocin


Rationale :

✅ Turn the patient to her side – This improves uteroplacental blood flow by relieving vena cava compression.

✅ Provide 2–3 liters of oxygen via mask – Oxygenation helps improve fetal status during hypoxia.

✅Notify the health care provider – Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, requiring provider evaluation.

✅ Stop the oxytocin – Discontinuing oxytocin halts uterine hyperstimulation, improving fetal perfusion.


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4 :

Hint : 🦠 Droplet + airway precautions

Correct Answers:

  • Monitor oxygen saturation.
  • Begin droplet precautions.
  • Initiate IV access.


Rationale :

🟢 Monitor oxygen saturation – Continuous monitoring helps detect respiratory distress early, which is a critical concern in epiglottitis.

🟢 Begin droplet precautions – Haemophilus influenzae type B is spread via droplets, necessitating isolation.

🟢 Initiate IV access – Allows for rapid administration of fluids and medications in case of respiratory deterioration.


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5 :

Hint : 🩸Major blood loss alert

Correct Answers:

  • "This change in hematocrit indicates a postpartum hemorrhage."


Rationale :

🔴 A hematocrit drop from 35% to 25% within 4 hours postpartum is a significant loss that strongly suggests postpartum hemorrhage (PPH).

🔴 This change exceeds the expected normal drop, which might occur due to hemodilution after fluid shifts but not to this extent.

🔴 PPH is defined as a cumulative blood loss of ≥500 mL (vaginal) or ≥1000 mL (cesarean) within 24 hours.

🔴 Hematocrit drops of 10% or more are clinical red flags, particularly when accompanied by other signs like tachycardia, hypotension, or pallor.

🔴 This requires immediate nursing recognition, provider notification, and intervention such as fundal massage or uterotonics.


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6 :

Hint : ❤️Terbutaline = watch pulse

Correct Answers:

  • P 132


Rationale :

🟣 Terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist, can cause maternal tachycardia as a side effect.

🟣 A heart rate over 120 bpm is concerning and considered a relative contraindication to its administration.

🟣 Administering Terbutaline in the presence of tachycardia could further compromise cardiac output and increase maternal risk.

🟣 Close cardiac monitoring is essential with this drug, especially in patients with a history of cardiovascular concerns.

🟣 The nurse should question and clarify the order with the provider before administering Terbutaline.


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7 :

Hint : 🫀High pulse = risk with Terbutaline

Correct Answers:

  • A pulse of 132 is high and could be a sign of tachycardia, which is a known side effect of Terbutaline, potentially making the use of this medication unsafe.


Rationale :

🟢 This explanation confirms that maternal pulse over 120 is a risk factor when administering Terbutaline.

🟢 Tachycardia increases the chance of arrhythmias and cardiovascular strain, especially in late pregnancy.

🟢 Terbutaline is generally withheld when maternal HR exceeds 120–130 bpm, per protocol or clinical judgment.

🟢 Fetal safety and maternal cardiac stability must both be evaluated before administration.

🟢 Always assess maternal vitals prior to administering beta-agonists in labor scenarios.


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8 :

Hint : 💉 Epidural → watch BP and preload

Correct Answers:

  • Maternal hypotension
  • The patient did not get an IV bolus prior to the epidural.


Rationale :

🟢 Maternal hypotension – Epidurals cause vasodilation, which can lower maternal blood pressure and reduce uteroplacental perfusion, resulting in late decelerations.

🟢 The patient did not get an IV bolus prior to the epidural – A preload of IV fluids is given before an epidural to prevent hypotension. Without it, the risk of reduced blood flow to the placenta increases, leading to fetal distress.

🟢 Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency and are non-reassuring signs.

🟢 Early identification of maternal factors like hypotension or poor fluid status is essential for prevention.

🟢 Nurse interventions include positioning, fluid bolus, and notifying the provider.


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9 :

Hint : 📈 Normal = Category 1

Correct Answers:

  • Category 1 tracing


Rationale :

🔴 A Category 1 fetal heart tracing includes baseline 110–160 bpm, moderate variability, no late or variable decelerations, and may include early decelerations or accelerations.

🔴 A FHR of 155 bpm with moderate variability, and early decelerations is reassuring and falls under Category 1.

🔴 Early decelerations mirror contractions and indicate fetal head compression, a benign finding during labor.

🔴 No signs of hypoxia or acidosis are present in a Category 1 tracing.

🔴 Such findings warrant continued routine monitoring rather than intervention.


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10 :

Hint : 🧪New OB + high-risk lifestyle = infectious screen

Correct Answers:

  • HIV
  • Urine glucose
  • Rubella Titer
  • Toxoplasmosis screen


Rationale :

🟣 HIV – Due to the high-risk sexual history, HIV screening is critical to prevent vertical transmission.

🟣 Rubella Titer – Needed to assess immunity status, as rubella infection in pregnancy can lead to severe fetal defects.

🟣 Toxoplasmosis screen – Exposure to cats (especially litter) increases risk of toxoplasmosis, which can cause neurodevelopmental damage to the fetus.

🟣 Vaginal cultures for STDs – Due to multiple sexual partners, she’s at increased risk for gonorrhea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis, which impact pregnancy outcomes.

🟣 These labs are vital during the first prenatal visit to identify and mitigate infectious risks early.


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Total Questions: 10

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