1 :

Hint : 🧪DNA-level detection first

Correct Answers:

  • Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)


Rationale :

🔷 NAAT is the fastest and most sensitive test for detecting Mycobacterium tuberculosis directly from sputum samples.

🔷 It detects genetic material (DNA/RNA) of TB, providing results in less than 24 hours.

🔷 Early detection is critical for preventing further transmission, especially in high-risk exposure cases.

🔷 Unlike chest X-rays or AFB smears, NAAT provides confirmatory molecular evidence even before cultures are positive.

🔷 NAAT is recommended by CDC as the first-line diagnostic test when TB is suspected in high-risk exposures.


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2 :

Hint : 🫁Check vitals before therapy

Correct Answers:

  • Assess pulse and respirations.


Rationale :

🔶 Baseline vital signs provide a reference to evaluate the client’s tolerance to the procedure.

🔶 Assessing respiratory rate and pulse helps monitor for distress during therapy.

🔶 It ensures safety especially in children with conditions like pneumonia.

🔶 Changes in these parameters can signal early complications or poor therapy response.

🔶 Priority nursing actions involve gathering baseline data before any intervention.


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3 :

Hint : 🧫Culture clears in 6 months

Correct Answers:

  • "Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy."


Rationale :

💠 TB treatment typically lasts 6 to 9 months, and sputum culture conversion indicates treatment effectiveness.

💠 Negative sputum cultures by 6 months suggest successful bacterial clearance and therapeutic adherence.

💠 This statement sets realistic expectations for the client, reducing anxiety and improving compliance.

💠 TB medications like isoniazid and rifampin require long-term adherence to prevent resistance.

💠 Nurses should emphasize monitoring sputum status regularly to evaluate treatment progress.


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4 :

Hint : 💨Control exhale with lips

Correct Answers:

  • Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing


Rationale :

🟢 Pursed-lip breathing prolongs exhalation, reducing air trapping and dyspnea in COPD patients.

🟢 It creates a back-pressure in the airways, keeping them open and enhancing oxygen exchange.

🟢 This technique reduces respiratory rate and improves tidal volume.

🟢 It empowers clients with self-regulation techniques to manage breathlessness.

🟢 Especially useful during exertion or episodes of SOB, making it a cornerstone of COPD management.


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5 :

Hint : 🩸O₂ first in trauma chest

Correct Answers:

  • Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.


Rationale :

🔴 Immediate oxygen administration helps stabilize oxygenation in clients with open chest injuries.

🔴 It supports tissue perfusion while preparing for definitive interventions like chest tube insertion.

🔴 Sucking chest wounds compromise ventilation by allowing air into the pleural space, creating a pneumothorax.

🔴 Oxygen helps reduce hypoxia and prevents respiratory failure, especially with RR 40/min.

🔴 Prompt oxygenation can be lifesaving while other emergency actions are underway.


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6 :

Hint : 🌊Tidal wave = working

Correct Answers:

  • Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber


Rationale :

🔵 Tidaling (fluid fluctuation) with respiration confirms a patent chest tube and effective drainage.

🔵 The water seal acts as a one-way valve, allowing air or fluid to exit but not re-enter.

🔵 Lack of fluctuation may signal obstruction or full lung re-expansion.

🔵 Continuous bubbling is not normal; intermittent bubbling or tidaling is expected.

🔵 Monitoring the water seal chamber helps prevent tension pneumothorax or tube complications.


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7 :

Hint : 🤸Prone = ARDS perfusion

Correct Answers:

  • Place in a prone position


Rationale :

🟣 Prone positioning improves ventilation-perfusion matching in ARDS by redistributing blood flow.

🟣 It enhances oxygenation by allowing better alveolar expansion and secretion drainage.

🟣 In severe ARDS, prone therapy is evidence-based and lifesaving, used along with mechanical ventilation.

🟣 It helps reduce lung compression by the heart and diaphragm, increasing functional lung volume.

🟣 Frequent repositioning prevents pressure injuries and optimizes respiratory mechanics.


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8 :

Hint : 🧍‍♂️No waves = re-expansion

Correct Answers:

  • No fluctuations in the water seal chamber


Rationale :

🟡 Absence of fluctuation can mean that the lung has fully re-expanded, eliminating pleural air/fluid shifts.

🟡 After full re-expansion, there is no longer a pressure gradient, so tidaling stops.

🟡 Confirm with chest X-ray to ensure the lung is re-inflated and chest tube can be removed soon.

🟡 Important to differentiate this from a blocked tube—other signs must align (improved oxygenation, no bubbling).

🟡 Monitoring chest tube output and respiratory status remains essential.


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9 :

Client is admitted to the emergency department with periodic episodes of wheezing and shortness of breath. Client reports wheezing, chest tightness, and persistent dry cough that increases at night.

Bilateral breath sounds with inspiratory and expiratory wheezing.

Color pale, skin warm and dry
Client is a nonsmoker and has a history of GERD.

Temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F)

Blood pressure 108/60 mm Hg

Pulse 96/min

Respiratory rate 28/min

Pulse oximetry 90% on room air


Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2. parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.


Hint : 🌬️Wheeze + night cough = asthma

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Asthma
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: Measure the client's peak airflow and Plan to administer a bronchodilator
  • Blank 3 Correct Option: Pulmonary function tests and Oxygen saturation

Rationale :

🟠 Symptoms such as wheezing, cough, and dyspnea at night are classic features of asthma.

🟠 Inspiratory/expiratory wheezes with dry cough and chest tightness strongly support the diagnosis.

🟠 History of nonsmoker + GERD increases asthma risk due to reflux-related airway irritation.

🟠 Vital signs show tachypnea and low O₂ saturation, common in asthma exacerbations.

🟠 No fever or productive cough suggests it is not bacterial pneumonia.


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10 :

Hint : 💉PPD only once unless negative

Correct Answers:

  • “This test is performed if previous results are negative."


Rationale :

🟥 The intradermal PPD test is used for initial screening in individuals with no known prior TB exposure or negative tests.

🟥 Once positive, PPD is not repeated; further screening is done via chest X-ray or sputum testing.

🟥 Repeated PPDs in those with positive histories can cause adverse skin reactions.

🟥 This question ensures proper sequence of testing and screening protocols.

🟥 Nurses must educate clients on why the test is performed and how it's interpreted.


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Total Questions: 10

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