Question

A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV and a CD4-T-cell count of 1501mm3. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor the client for?

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Tuberculosis

Rationale :

Clients with HIV and a low CD4 count (below 200/mm³) are at high risk for opportunistic infections, including tuberculosis (TB). TB is one of the most common and serious infections affecting immunocompromised individuals. Hepatitis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia can occur in HIV clients but are not opportunistic infections.

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Answer 2

Correct Order:

Order : 1 : No answer text available
Order : 2 : No answer text available
Order : 3 : No answer text available
Order : 4 : No answer text available
Order : 5 : No answer text available
Order : 6 : No answer text available

Rationale :

The client is showing signs of angioedema and anaphylaxis, which can cause airway obstruction and respiratory failure. Assessing the airway is the first priority in any emergency. Calling for help, administering oxygen, securing IV access, and giving epinephrine are crucial in managing anaphylaxis.

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Answer 3

Correct Answers:

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTls)

Rationale :

NRTIs block reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that converts HIV’s RNA into DNA, preventing the virus from replicating. Fusion inhibitors block entry, integrase inhibitors prevent viral DNA integration, and protease inhibitors stop viral protein processing.

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Answer 4

Correct Answers:

A phlebotomist who collects blood from clients who have HIV

Rationale :

HIV is primarily transmitted through blood and bodily fluids, making healthcare workers who handle blood samples most vulnerable. Needle-stick injuries pose a significant occupational risk for phlebotomists. Proper safety precautions, such as using gloves and disposing of needles safely, reduce the risk of transmission.

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Answer 5

Correct Answers:

Stridor

Rationale :

Stridor is a high-pitched sound that signals airway obstruction, which is the most life-threatening symptom of anaphylaxis. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complete airway closure and respiratory arrest. Treating airway obstruction takes precedence over hypotension, urticaria, or vomiting.

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Answer 6

Correct Answers:

What day and time did the assault take place?

Rationale :

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV prevention is most effective when initiated within 72 hours of exposure. Determining the exact time of the assault allows the healthcare provider to assess whether PEP should be administered. Early antiviral treatment significantly reduces the risk of HIV transmission.

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Answer 7

Correct Answers:

Potassium

Rationale :

Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that increases urine output and leads to potassium loss (hypokalemia). Low potassium levels can cause muscle weakness, irregular heart rhythms, and fatigue. Patients taking furosemide require regular potassium level monitoring and possible supplementation.

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Answer 8

Correct Answers:

Administer hypertonic saline and restrict water intake

Rationale :

A sodium level of 120 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can lead to confusion, seizures, and neurological damage. Hypertonic saline (3% NaCl) is administered to gradually raise sodium levels and prevent further dilution. Water restriction is necessary to avoid worsening hyponatremia.

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Answer 9

Correct Answers:

Ability to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes

Rationale :

HIV weakens the immune system by attacking CD4 (T-helper) cells, which are essential for fighting infections. As CD4 levels decrease, the body becomes more vulnerable to opportunistic infections. Suppressing viral replication through ART helps preserve CD4 function and immunity.

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Answer 10

Correct Answers:

Oliguria

Rationale :

Hypovolemic shock occurs due to significant fluid loss, leading to decreased urine output (oliguria), low blood pressure, and tachycardia. Reduced kidney perfusion causes oliguria as the body conserves fluids to maintain circulation. Immediate fluid resuscitation is necessary to restore blood volume.

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RN 2100 Unit 3 Fundamentals

No.

1 : A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV and a CD4-T-cell count of 1501mm3. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor the client for?

2 : A nurse is assessing a client after administering a dose of losartan. The client has a hoarse voice, and swollen lips and tongue. In which order should the nurse take the following actions?

3 : Which class of antiretroviral drugs targets the stage of the HIV lifecycle by inhibiting RNA from forming DNA?

4 : A group of nurses are discussing risk factors for transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which of the following individuals should the nurse identify as being at the greatest risk for contracting HIV?

5 : A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected anaphylactic reaction following a CT scan with contrast media. For which of the following client findings should the nurse intervene first?

6 : A nurse is caring for a client who was sexually assaulted. An assessment of the client indicates that they might have been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following questions is most important to ask the client?

7 : A nurse is caring for a client who receives furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client due to this medication?

8 : A 65-year-old female presents with confusion, headache, and muscle weakness. Her sodium level is 120 mEq/L. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate based on her condition?

9 : A nurse is educating a client who has HIV about the infection process. Which of the following features of the virus should the nurse explain can result in opportunistic infection?

10 : A nurse is caring for a client who has hypovolemic shock. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as an expected finding?

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