1 :

Hint : PUD → reduce gastric acid.

Correct Answers:

  • Aluminium hydroxide.


Rationale :

💊 Aluminium hydroxide is an antacid that can be used to relieve symptoms associated with peptic ulcer disease (PUD).

💊 It works by neutralizing gastric hydrochloric acid, thereby increasing the pH of stomach contents.

💊 Reducing gastric acidity decreases irritation of the gastric and duodenal mucosa and can relieve epigastric pain and heartburn.

💊 Antacids can provide relatively rapid symptomatic relief, although they do not address the underlying cause of most peptic ulcers.

💊 Current treatment of PUD commonly includes proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), particularly when acid suppression and ulcer healing are required.

💊 Clients with Helicobacter pylori infection typically require antibiotic therapy combined with acid suppression to eradicate the infection and promote healing.

💊 Aluminium-containing antacids can cause constipation, which the nurse should assess for and include in client teaching.

💊 Among the medications listed, aluminium hydroxide is the medication most directly associated with reducing gastric acidity and relieving symptoms of peptic ulcer disease.


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2 :

Hint : Lactulose → stool out ammonia → clearer mind.

Correct Answers:

  • Improved level of consciousness.
  • Decreasing serum ammonia.
  • Increased bowel movements.


Rationale :

🧠 Improved level of consciousness — CORRECT

🧠 Lactulose is used in clients with liver failure to prevent or treat hepatic encephalopathy.

🧠 Liver failure reduces the liver's ability to metabolize ammonia, allowing ammonia to accumulate in the bloodstream.

🧠 Elevated ammonia can cross the blood-brain barrier and contribute to confusion, altered behavior, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness.

🧠 Lactulose helps trap ammonia in the colon by converting ammonia (NH₃) into less absorbable ammonium (NH₄⁺).

🧠 Trapped ammonium is then eliminated through the stool, reducing systemic ammonia exposure.

🧠 As ammonia levels decrease, manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy should improve.

🧠 Improved orientation, alertness, cognition, and level of consciousness therefore indicate a therapeutic response.

🧠 Neurologic improvement is an important clinical indicator that lactulose is effectively controlling hepatic encephalopathy.

🧠 Decreasing serum ammonia — CORRECT

🧠 One of the primary purposes of lactulose in liver failure is to reduce ammonia absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.

🧠 Lactulose reaches the colon where intestinal bacteria metabolize it into organic acids.

🧠 Acidification of the colon converts absorbable ammonia into poorly absorbed ammonium ions.

🧠 Ammonium remains primarily within the intestinal lumen and is eliminated in feces.

🧠 This mechanism decreases the amount of ammonia entering the systemic circulation.

🧠 A declining serum ammonia level supports the medication's intended ammonia-lowering effect, although clinical neurologic status is also essential to assess.

🧠 Reduced ammonia exposure helps decrease manifestations such as confusion, altered consciousness, and asterixis.

🧠 Therefore, decreasing serum ammonia together with clinical improvement indicates an effective response to lactulose therapy.

🧠 Increased bowel movements — CORRECT

🧠 Lactulose is a nonabsorbable disaccharide that also acts as an osmotic laxative.

🧠 It draws water into the colon, producing softer and more frequent stools.

🧠 Increased stool elimination helps remove trapped ammonium from the gastrointestinal tract.

🧠 Treatment for hepatic encephalopathy is commonly titrated to produce approximately 2 to 3 soft stools daily.

🧠 Adequate bowel movements indicate that lactulose is reaching the colon and producing its intended gastrointestinal effect.

🧠 Excessive diarrhea is not desirable because it can cause dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities.

🧠 The nurse should monitor stool frequency and consistency while also assessing fluid and electrolyte status.

🧠 Appropriate increased bowel movements therefore support effective ammonia elimination and improvement of hepatic encephalopathy.


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3 :

Hint : Different tablet strength, same total dose.

Correct Answers:

  • Explain to the client that the two tablets of 125 mcg is the same dose as one pill of 250 mcg.
  • Administer the medication as prescribed, but closely monitor client for possible dosing adjustments.


Rationale :

💗 Explain that two 125 mcg tablets equal one 250 mcg tablet — CORRECT

💗 The nurse should first address the client's concern by explaining that the total prescribed dose has not changed.

💗 Two tablets containing 125 mcg each equal 250 mcg because 125 mcg × 2 = 250 mcg.

💗 The number of tablets administered can vary depending on the strength of the tablets supplied by the pharmacy.

💗 A client may receive one 250 mcg tablet at home while the healthcare facility stocks 125 mcg tablets.

💗 Medication administration is based on the total prescribed dose, rather than simply the number of tablets.

💗 Providing this explanation promotes the client's understanding and supports the client's right to question medications before taking them.

💗 The nurse should verify the medication prescription and available tablet strength before administration as part of safe medication practice.

💗 Explaining the equivalent dosage resolves the discrepancy without incorrectly suggesting that the client's prescribed digoxin dose has changed.

💗 Administer the medication as prescribed, but closely monitor the client for possible dosing adjustments — CORRECT

💗 Once the nurse confirms the prescription for digoxin 250 mcg, administering two 125 mcg tablets provides the prescribed dose.

💗 The nurse should assess the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute before administering digoxin.

💗 Digoxin is generally withheld and the healthcare provider notified when the adult client's apical pulse is below 60 beats/minute, according to the prescription and facility protocol.

💗 Older adults require careful monitoring because changes in renal function can increase the risk of digoxin accumulation and toxicity.

💗 The nurse should monitor for toxicity manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, weakness, confusion, bradycardia, and dysrhythmias.

💗 Visual disturbances such as blurred vision or yellow-green vision can also indicate digoxin toxicity.

💗 Potassium levels and renal function are important because hypokalemia can increase sensitivity to digoxin and increase toxicity risk.

💗 Administering the verified prescribed dose while appropriately monitoring the client therefore represents safe medication administration.


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4 :

Hint : Heart failure → choose low-sodium products.

Correct Answers:

  • Low sodium antacid.


Rationale :

💙 Antacids neutralize gastric acid and can provide relatively rapid relief of occasional heartburn and acid indigestion.

💙 The client's symptoms occurring when lying down after dinner are consistent with gastroesophageal reflux, because the supine position facilitates reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus.

💙 A client with heart failure (HF) should avoid antacids containing large amounts of sodium because excess sodium promotes fluid retention.

💙 Fluid retention can increase circulating volume and cardiac workload, potentially worsening heart failure.

💙 Excess fluid accumulation can contribute to peripheral edema, pulmonary congestion, weight gain, and dyspnea.

💙 A low-sodium antacid is therefore preferable when an OTC antacid is being considered for a client with heart failure.

💙 The nurse should encourage consultation with the healthcare provider before regular OTC medication use because antacids can interact with other medications and persistent heartburn requires evaluation.

💙 Additional measures such as avoiding lying down for 2 to 3 hours after eating, eating smaller meals, and elevating the head of the bed can also decrease reflux symptoms.


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5 :

Hint : Hospice cancer pain → potent opioid analgesia.

Correct Answers:

  • Fentanyl


Rationale :

💜 Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic commonly used to manage severe chronic cancer pain, including pain requiring palliative or hospice management.

💜 A major advantage of fentanyl is that it can be administered transdermally, providing continuous systemic analgesia over an extended period.

💜 Transdermal fentanyl can be especially useful when clients have difficulty swallowing or need consistent management of persistent pain.

💜 Fentanyl undergoes primarily hepatic metabolism, but unlike some opioids it does not produce clinically significant active metabolites that accumulate with renal dysfunction.

💜 The dose must still be used cautiously in clients with significant hepatic impairment, because liver dysfunction can alter drug metabolism and increase opioid effects.

💜 Transdermal fentanyl is generally appropriate for clients who are opioid tolerant and require continuous opioid therapy, rather than opioid-naïve clients with acute pain.

💜 The nurse should monitor for sedation, respiratory depression, hypotension, constipation, and altered mental status during opioid therapy.

💜 In hospice care, the primary objective is comfort and quality of life, making a potent long-acting opioid such as fentanyl a likely medication for appropriately selected clients with advanced metastatic cancer.


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6 :

Hint : Psyllium swells → always give water.

Correct Answers:

  • Psyllium hydrophilic should be taken with a full glass of water.


Rationale :

🌾 Psyllium is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water in the intestine and increases the size and moisture content of stool.

🌾 Adequate fluid is essential because psyllium must absorb water to form a soft, bulky stool that can move through the colon more easily.

🌾 Each dose should be mixed with and followed by an adequate amount of fluid, generally at least 8 oz (240 mL) of water, unless fluids are restricted.

🌾 Taking psyllium with insufficient fluid can cause the medication to swell before reaching the stomach, increasing the risk of choking or esophageal obstruction.

🌾 Adequate hydration also reduces the risk of intestinal obstruction or fecal impaction associated with bulk-forming laxatives.

🌾 Psyllium can be useful for clients with diverticulosis because maintaining soft, regular stools helps reduce constipation and excessive straining.

🌾 The client should take psyllium exactly as directed and maintain adequate daily fluid intake unless contraindicated by another medical condition.

🌾 Therefore, taking psyllium with a full glass of water is one of the most important safety instructions for this medication.


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7 :

Hint : Bethanechol → detrusor contraction → urination.

Correct Answers:

  • Urinary output equals intake.


Rationale :

🚻 Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic (muscarinic) agonist used to treat nonobstructive urinary retention.

🚻 It stimulates muscarinic receptors in the urinary bladder, producing contraction of the detrusor muscle.

🚻 Detrusor contraction increases bladder tone and promotes bladder emptying.

🚻 Effective bladder emptying results in an increase in spontaneous urinary output and a reduction in retained urine.

🚻 When urinary output appropriately corresponds with fluid intake, this indicates that the client is eliminating urine effectively rather than retaining it.

🚻 The nurse can also evaluate effectiveness by assessing for decreased bladder distention and reduced postvoid residual urine.

🚻 Bethanechol should not be used when urinary retention results from a mechanical urinary obstruction, because stimulating bladder contraction against an obstruction can cause harm.

🚻 Therefore, urinary output that appropriately reflects the client's intake provides the best evidence listed that bethanechol is producing its desired urinary elimination effect.


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8 :

Hint : Steroid inhaler → rinse and spit.

Correct Answers:

  • Rinsing the mouth with water should be one after each use.


Rationale :

🌬️ Rinsing the mouth after inhaler use is particularly important when the inhaler contains an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS).

🌬️ Inhaled corticosteroids can leave medication residue in the mouth and oropharynx after administration.

🌬️ Residual corticosteroid can promote the development of oral candidiasis (thrush).

🌬️ Clients can also develop hoarseness or throat irritation from local corticosteroid exposure.

🌬️ The client should rinse the mouth thoroughly with water and spit it out after using an inhaled corticosteroid.

🌬️ The rinse water should not be routinely swallowed because the purpose is to remove residual medication from the mouth.

🌬️ Proper inhaler technique, including use of a spacer when appropriate, can further improve medication delivery to the lungs and decrease medication deposition in the mouth.

🌬️ Therefore, the statement about rinsing the mouth after inhaler use best demonstrates understanding of appropriate inhaler teaching among the choices provided.


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9 :

Hint : Mechanical valve → bridge heparin to warfarin.

Correct Answers:

  • Replacement of the heparin infusion with warfarin PO daily.


Rationale :

🫀 Following implantation of an artificial heart valve, anticoagulation is necessary to reduce the risk of thrombus formation and systemic embolization.

🫀 Unfractionated heparin provides rapid anticoagulation immediately after surgery and is monitored primarily using the aPTT.

🫀 An aPTT of 60 seconds can represent a therapeutic response when it falls within the prescribed target of approximately 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.

🫀 Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant commonly used for longer-term anticoagulation in clients with mechanical prosthetic heart valves.

🫀 Warfarin does not produce immediate therapeutic anticoagulation because several days are required for existing vitamin K-dependent clotting factors to decrease.

🫀 Heparin is therefore commonly used as bridging anticoagulation while warfarin is initiated and the INR approaches the prescribed therapeutic range.

🫀 An INR of 2 is elevated above the normal range but may still be below the required therapeutic target for some mechanical aortic valves; the specific target depends on the valve and additional thromboembolic risk factors.

🫀 Once warfarin produces the prescribed therapeutic INR and adequate overlap has occurred, the heparin infusion can be discontinued, making transition to oral warfarin the expected change in therapy.


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10 :

Hint : Albuterol = rapid rescue bronchodilator.

Correct Answers:

  • At the first sign of an asthma attack the client uses the albuterol inhaler.


Rationale :

🌬️ A. Uses the albuterol inhaler at the first sign of an asthma attack — CORRECT

🌬️ Albuterol is a short-acting beta₂-adrenergic agonist (SABA) used as a rescue bronchodilator.

🌬️ It should be used promptly when the client develops early symptoms of acute bronchospasm, such as wheezing, chest tightness, coughing, or shortness of breath.

🌬️ Albuterol stimulates beta₂ receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, producing rapid bronchodilation.

🌬️ Its onset of action is relatively rapid, making it appropriate for quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.

🌬️ Early administration can prevent bronchospasm from progressing to more severe airway obstruction and respiratory distress.

🌬️ Clients may also be instructed to use albuterol before exercise when exercise-induced bronchospasm is anticipated.

🌬️ Frequent reliance on a rescue inhaler can indicate poorly controlled asthma and should prompt evaluation of the client's long-term treatment plan.

🌬️ Using albuterol at the first sign of an asthma attack therefore demonstrates appropriate understanding of its role as a rescue medication.


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