1 :

Hint : 🦴Inspection is visual observation only

Correct Answers:

  • Atrophy.
  • Contracture.
  • Kyphosis.


Rationale :

Atrophy

🦴 Atrophy refers to a decrease in muscle size or bulk due to disuse, denervation, or disease, and it is directly visible to the naked eye as a noticeable asymmetry or wasting of a limb or muscle group.

🦴 During inspection, the nurse compares bilateral extremities for symmetry, and atrophy presents as one limb appearing thinner or smaller than the other, which is a classic visual finding.

🦴 This is a primary inspection finding because no palpation or special equipment is required to observe muscle wasting; the nurse simply looks at the client's body contours.

🦴 Common causes include prolonged immobilization, stroke, or peripheral nerve damage, and early detection through inspection guides further neuromuscular assessment.

🦴 The nurse documents the location, degree, and symmetry of atrophy based solely on visual observation, making it a key component of the musculoskeletal inspection.

Contracture

🦴 A contracture is a permanent shortening of muscle, tendon, or ligament that results in a fixed joint deformity, and it is visually apparent as an abnormal, often flexed, posture of a joint (e.g., wrist drop or foot drop).

🦴 Inspection reveals limited joint mobility and abnormal positioning, such as a client unable to fully extend an elbow or knee, which is observable without any physical manipulation.

🦴 This finding is purely visual – the nurse sees the fixed angulation or deformity during the general survey or focused musculoskeletal inspection.

🦴 Contractures are commonly seen in clients with prolonged bed rest, cerebral palsy, or rheumatoid arthritis, and their detection through inspection prompts early intervention like physical therapy.

🦴 The nurse notes the joint affected, degree of flexion/extension, and any associated skin changes (e.g., redness or breakdown) during this visual assessment.

Kyphosis

🦴 Kyphosis is an excessive forward curvature of the thoracic spine, resulting in a hunched or rounded back appearance that is readily visible during inspection of the client's posture from the side.

🦴 This is a classic inspection finding – the nurse observes the client's spinal alignment, and kyphosis presents as an exaggerated convex curve in the upper back, often seen in older adults or with osteoporosis.

🦴 No palpation or special tools are needed; the nurse simply looks at the client's standing or sitting posture to identify the abnormal thoracic curvature.

🦴 Severe kyphosis can affect respiratory function and mobility, so early visual identification during inspection is essential for comprehensive assessment and referral.

🦴 The nurse documents the degree of curvature, any associated asymmetry, and the client's ability to correct the posture, all of which are obtained through careful observation.


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2 :

Hint : 👁️"Legally blind" is a specific visual acuity measurement (20/200 or worse) .

Correct Answers:

  • Assess the client's ability to read a Snellen chart from a distance of 20 feet.


Rationale :

👁️ The Snellen chart is the standard tool for measuring visual acuity, and "legally blind" is defined as a best-corrected visual acuity of 20/200 or worse in the better eye, which is precisely what the Snellen test quantifies.

👁️ Asking the client to read the Snellen chart from 20 feet provides subjective data – the client's own performance and reported ability to see the letters – which directly supports or refutes the client's statement about their visual status.

👁️ This technique assesses functional vision in a standardized, reproducible way, allowing the nurse to document objective measurements (e.g., 20/200) that corroborate the client's self-report.

👁️ It is the most appropriate initial assessment because it directly measures the criterion used to define legal blindness, unlike other tests that evaluate eye structures or neurological responses.

👁️ The nurse records the smallest line the client can read at 20 feet, and if the client cannot read any letters, the nurse tests for counting fingers or hand motion, all of which are subjective visual function assessments.


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3 :

The client is a 76-year-old female who arrived at the emergency department (ED) via ambulance from an assisted living facility after a fall. The client called for help using her medical alert necklace. Reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded for the past two days. The client is unable to recall the events that led up to the fall and states, "I do not know how long I was down." Past medical history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension (HTN), and carotid artery stenosis. Smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. Attempted to quit smoking five years ago after a right carotid endarterectomy.

1620

Received report from triage nurse. Client returning from computed tomography (CT) department. The client is alert and oriented times 3. Unable to recall details of her fall. Heart rhythm regular. Lung sounds are diminished throughout. Placed on oxygen 1 L/minute via nasal canal. Bruising noted to left arm and small laceration on the left chin from the fall. Pain rated 3 on a scale of 0 to 10. Carotid ultrasound performed at bedside. Laboratory specimens drawn. Preparing the client for transfer to the stroke unit, calling to give report.

1640

Transferred client to the floor. Situation, background, assessment, recommendation (SBAR) report given.

1655

Received client from emergency department (ED). Admitted to the unit.

1600

on arrival

Temperature: 98.9° F (37. 1° C) orally

Heart rate: 101 beats/minute

Respirations: 22 breaths/minute

Blood pressure: 156/90 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air

1635

Temperature: 98.6° F (37° C) orally

Heart rate: 98 beats/minute

Respirations: 22 breaths/minute

Blood pressure: 160/92 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation: 93% on 1 L/minute oxygen via nasal cannula

1700

Temperature: 98.6° F (37° C) orally

Heart rate: 100 beats/minute

Respirations: 21 breaths/minute

Blood pressure: 166/89 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation: 94% on 1 L/minute oxygen via nasal cannula

 Imaging Studies

Computed tomography (CT) of the head Carotid duplex ultrasound

Complete blood count (CBC), complete metabolic panel (CMP), prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), C-reactive protein (CRP), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), low density lipoprotein (LDL), high density lipoprotein (HDL) Admit to the stroke unit Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of brain Computed tomography (CT) of brain: Negative. Carotid ultrasound: Left carotid 80% stenosis.


The nurse is admitting the client to the stroke unit and preparing to complete a focused neurological assessment. Which assessment(s) should the nurse conduct?Select all that apply.


Answer Options

Hint : 🧠A focused neurological assessment after a fall with suspected stroke/transient ischemic attack (TIA) includes LOC, motor function, cranial nerves, and pupillary response – but NOT meningeal signs (Brudzinski) or balance tests (Romberg) which are for different conditions.

Correct Answers:

  • Muscle tone
  • Pupil size
  • Glasgow coma scale
  • Cranial nerves
  • Level of consciousness


Rationale :

Muscle tone

🧠 Muscle tone assessment is a critical component of the motor system evaluation in a focused neurological assessment, as it detects upper motor neuron lesions (spasticity) or lower motor neuron lesions (flaccidity) that may indicate a stroke or other neurological deficit.

🧠 In a client with carotid artery stenosis and a fall with amnesia, assessing muscle tone helps identify unilateral weakness or hemiparesis, which are hallmark signs of an acute cerebrovascular event.

🧠 The nurse evaluates tone by passively moving the client's limbs through range of motion, feeling for resistance or floppiness, which provides objective data about corticospinal tract integrity.

🧠 This assessment is non-invasive and quick, making it ideal for the acute stroke unit setting, and it can be performed even if the client is confused or unable to follow commands.

🧠 Abnormal muscle tone, especially asymmetry between sides, would prompt immediate further investigation and stroke team notification, as it indicates focal neurological injury.

Pupil size

🧠 Pupil size assessment is a fundamental part of the cranial nerve II and III evaluation and provides critical information about intracranial pressure, brainstem function, and herniation in a client with a fall and possible stroke.

🧠 The nurse assesses bilateral pupil size, shape, and equality, as well as the pupillary light reflex, all of which are essential for detecting oculomotor nerve compression or increased intracranial pressure.

🧠 In a stroke or post-fall client, anisocoria (unequal pupils) or sluggish/non-reactive pupils can indicate elevated intracranial pressure, intracranial hemorrhage, or uncal herniation, which are life-threatening emergencies.

🧠 Pupillary changes are among the earliest objective signs of neurological deterioration, making this assessment a high-priority component of any focused neurological exam.

🧠 Even though the CT head was negative, the client remains at risk for delayed intracranial bleeding or edema, so serial pupil assessments are essential for early detection of change.

Glasgow Coma Scale

🧠 The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is the standardized, validated tool for quantifying level of consciousness by assessing eye opening, verbal response, and motor response, yielding a score from 3 to 15.

🧠 In a client with a fall, amnesia, and carotid stenosis, the GCS provides a baseline objective score against which all future neurological assessments can be compared to detect deterioration or improvement.

🧠 The client is currently alert and oriented × 3, but the GCS captures subtle changes in motor or verbal responses that may not be evident in a simple orientation assessment.

🧠 This tool is essential in stroke unit care because it allows for rapid, reproducible communication among healthcare providers regarding the client's neurological status.

🧠 A declining GCS score is a red flag for conditions such as expanding intracranial hemorrhage, cerebral edema, or metabolic encephalopathy, all of which are relevant to this client's presentation.

Cranial nerves

🧠 Cranial nerve assessment is a core component of the focused neurological exam because stroke and carotid artery stenosis can affect specific cranial nerves depending on the vascular territory involved.

🧠 The nurse should assess at least cranial nerves II (optic), III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), VI (abducens), VII (facial), and XII (hypoglossal) to evaluate for gaze palsies, facial droop, and tongue deviation, which are classic stroke signs.

🧠 In a client with carotid stenosis, cranial nerve dysfunction may indicate ischemia in the anterior circulation or brainstem, and early detection guides thrombolytic or surgical interventions.

🧠 This assessment is non-invasive and can be done at the bedside in minutes, providing immediate data about brainstem and cortical function.

🧠 Abnormal cranial nerve findings, such as ptosis, diplopia, facial asymmetry, or dysphagia, are strong indicators of stroke and warrant urgent neurology consultation.

Level of consciousness

🧠 Level of consciousness (LOC) is the single most important neurological assessment because it is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of increasing intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia, or metabolic derangement.

🧠 LOC is assessed by evaluating the client's alertness, orientation to person/place/time, and ability to follow commands, which provides a global picture of cerebral cortical function.

🧠 In this client, the fall, dizziness, and amnesia suggest a possible transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke, and any decline in LOC from her current alert state would be a critical warning sign.

🧠 LOC is assessed frequently in stroke unit care (every 1–2 hours) because deterioration can occur rapidly, and early detection allows for prompt intervention.

🧠 The nurse documents LOC using standardized descriptors (alert, lethargic, obtunded, stuporous, or comatose) to ensure clear communication and trend identification across shifts.


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4 :

Hint : 🔍 Normal gallbladder = not palpable.

Correct Answers:

  • The gallbladder is normal.


Rationale :

🔍 The gallbladder is normally not palpable because it lies deep beneath the liver and is soft, small, and mobile, making it inaccessible to physical examination.

🔍 In a healthy individual, the gallbladder does not extend below the liver edge, so palpation will not elicit a mass or tenderness.

🔍 A palpable gallbladder is always abnormal and suggests distension from cholecystitis, hydrops, mucocele, or carcinoma.

🔍 Obesity may mask structures, but the primary reason is that a non-pathological gallbladder is simply not felt regardless of body habitus.

🔍 Since the client has no reported biliary symptoms (e.g., pain, jaundice, fever), the most likely explanation is that the gallbladder is normal and non-palpable.


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5 :

Hint : 🫁 Exercise + wheezing + hypoxia = asthma.

Correct Answers:

  • Asthma.


Rationale :

🫁 Expiratory wheezing, prolonged expiration, intercostal retractions, tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia (SpO₂ 85%) are classic signs of an acute asthma exacerbation with significant bronchospasm and air trapping.

🫁 Onset during exercise indicates exercise-induced bronchoconstriction, a common asthma trigger, and the absence of fever rules out infectious causes like pneumonia or bronchitis.

🫁 Decreased tactile fremitus and bilateral decreased breath sounds occur due to hyperinflation of the lungs from air trapping, which reduces sound transmission through the chest wall.

🫁 Expiratory wheezing is specifically caused by narrowed airways that collapse during forced expiration, producing the characteristic musical sound, and prolonged expiration indicates increased airway resistance.

🫁 This acute, reversible presentation with bronchodilators distinguishes asthma from chronic bronchitis, and the bilateral findings rule out pneumothorax.


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6 :

Hint : 🩹Red + swollen + painful = infection to report.

Correct Answers:

  • Red, swollen, painful nodule located on upper back on a school-aged boy.


Rationale :

🩹 This describes a furuncle, carbuncle, or abscess, indicating an acute bacterial infection (often Staphylococcus aureus) that requires medical evaluation and possible incision and drainage.

🩹 Signs of acute inflammation (rubor, tumor, dolor, calor) pose a risk of cellulitis or systemic spread if untreated, making this a reportable finding.

🩹 The upper back location is prone to friction and moisture, which can exacerbate infection and delay healing.

🩹 This is not a normal variant or expected developmental change; it is pathological and warrants antibiotic therapy or surgical referral.

🩹 The school nurse should document the size, tenderness, and fluctuance, and notify the parent and healthcare provider promptly for further management.


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7 :

Hint : 🧠 Proverbs test abstract thinking.

Correct Answers:

  • "What does, 'The early bird catches the worm,' mean?"


Rationale :

🧠 Interpreting proverbs is a standard neuropsychological test for abstract reasoning, requiring the client to move beyond literal meaning and infer a general principle or moral lesson.

🧠 This assesses executive function and higher-order cognitive processing, which are often impaired in conditions like dementia, schizophrenia, or frontal lobe lesions.

🧠 The client's response reveals their ability to generalize, use symbolism, and see relationships between concepts, which are core components of abstract thinking.

🧠 Unlike factual or rote-memory questions, this item has no single correct answer but allows the nurse to evaluate the depth and quality of the client's reasoning.

🧠 A concrete response (e.g., "Birds eat worms") suggests impaired abstract thinking, while a conceptual response (e.g., "You should act early to get ahead") indicates intact function.


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8 :

Hint : 👄Patchy pigmentation = normal variant.

Correct Answers:

  • Document this finding in the medical record.


Rationale :

👄 Patchy buccal discoloration in clients with darkly pigmented skin is a normal physiological finding known as physiologic racial pigmentation, caused by increased melanin deposition in the basal layer of the oral epithelium.

👄 This pigmentation is commonly seen on the gingiva, hard palate, and buccal mucosa without any associated pathology.

👄 The nurse should document the finding accurately in the medical record as part of the baseline assessment, noting the location, color, and distribution.

👄 There are no signs of pathology (e.g., ulceration, induration, bleeding, or pain), so no additional investigation or referral is indicated for this normal variant.

👄 Proper documentation ensures that subsequent examiners are aware this is a baseline finding and prevents unnecessary concern or repeated investigations in the future.


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9 :

Hint : 🔊5–30 sounds/min = normal.

Correct Answers:

  • Normal bowel sounds.


Rationale :

🔊 Normal bowel sounds are characterized by soft, high-pitched gurgling or clicking sounds that occur irregularly at a rate of approximately 5–30 times per minute, which matches the described frequency of one every 5–10 seconds.

🔊 The 3-second duration and presence in all four quadrants indicate active, symmetrical peristaltic activity of the gastrointestinal tract.

🔊 These sounds are produced by movement of gas and fluid through the intestines, and their presence in all quadrants indicates normal bowel function.

🔊 There is no indication of hyperactive, hypoactive, or absent bowel sounds, as the frequency is within the normal range and there are no associated symptoms like borborygmi or complete silence.

🔊 The nurse should document this as "bowel sounds present, normoactive in all four quadrants" to clearly communicate the normal finding.


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10 :

Hint : 🩸Falling hematocrit = ongoing bleeding.

Correct Answers:

  • Hematocrit changes from 36% to 32%.


Rationale :

🩸 A decreasing hematocrit from 36% to 32% is a clear indicator that active bleeding is continuing or has recurred, because hematocrit falls as red blood cells are lost without adequate replacement.

🩸 The normal hematocrit range for males is 42–52%, so this client's value is already below normal and continuing to drop, which is a critical sign of uncompensated blood loss.

🩸 Hematocrit is a direct measure of red blood cell mass, and a sustained or declining value in the absence of fluid resuscitation suggests ongoing hemorrhage from the GI tract.

🩸 The absence of visible hemorrhoids does not rule out upper or lower GI bleeding sources (e.g., ulcers, diverticulosis, angiodysplasia), making serial hematocrit monitoring essential.

🩸 This downward trend requires immediate provider notification and further diagnostic workup, as it indicates that the bleeding is not resolved and the client is at risk for hemodynamic instability.


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Total Questions: 10

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