Question

A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit.

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Chest x-ray result.
Report regarding weight.
Chest assessment.
Lung sounds.

Rationale :

✅ Chest x-ray result

💜 The chest x-ray shows increased lung space and hyperinflation, which are characteristic findings of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

💜 Hyperinflation occurs when damaged airways prevent the client from completely exhaling air from the lungs.

💜 This incomplete exhalation causes air trapping, particularly in clients with emphysema.

💜 Progressive air trapping increases the size of the lungs and can flatten the diaphragm.

💜 A chest x-ray can also reveal increased anterior-posterior chest diameter and decreased vascular markings in advanced COPD.

💜 Although a chest x-ray does not independently confirm COPD, it supports the diagnosis when combined with the client’s symptoms and physical findings.

💜 The client’s hyperinflated lungs are therefore consistent with chronic airflow limitation associated with COPD.

💜 Pulmonary function testing, especially a reduced FEV₁/FVC ratio, is generally used to confirm persistent airflow obstruction.

✅ Report regarding weight

💜 The client reports an unintentional weight loss of 4.5 kg (10 lb), which can occur in clients with advanced COPD.

💜 Clients with COPD often expend additional energy because they must work harder to breathe.

💜 Increased use of accessory muscles and persistent respiratory effort can significantly increase caloric requirements.

💜 Dyspnea may also make eating difficult because the client must coordinate chewing, swallowing, and breathing.

💜 Chronic coughing, fatigue, and reduced appetite can further decrease the client’s nutritional intake.

💜 Weight loss may contribute to respiratory muscle weakness, decreased immunity, and reduced activity tolerance.

💜 Even though the client’s BMI is 22, the recent unintentional weight loss remains clinically significant.

💜 The nurse should monitor nutritional status and encourage small, frequent, high-calorie and high-protein meals when appropriate.

✅ Chest assessment

💜 The presence of a barrel chest is a common physical assessment finding in clients with chronic COPD, especially emphysema.

💜 A barrel chest develops because chronic air trapping increases the anterior-posterior diameter of the thorax.

💜 The client’s slightly labored respirations indicate increased effort needed to move air through narrowed airways.

💜 An elevated head of the bed helps promote lung expansion and decreases the work of breathing.

💜 The client’s productive cough with thick sputum is consistent with excessive mucus production, which commonly occurs in chronic bronchitis.

💜 The reduced oxygen saturation of 89% on room air is also consistent with impaired gas exchange caused by COPD.

💜 Improvement to 92% on 2 L/min by nasal cannula indicates a response to controlled supplemental oxygen.

💜 These combined chest findings support chronic airflow obstruction and impaired ventilation associated with COPD.

✅ Lung sounds

💜 Coarse breath sounds and rhonchi are consistent with mucus accumulation in the larger airways.

💜 Rhonchi are low-pitched, continuous sounds produced when air moves through airways containing thick secretions.

💜 Excessive mucus production and impaired mucus clearance are common features of chronic bronchitis, a form of COPD.

💜 The client’s productive cough with thick sputum further supports the presence of retained respiratory secretions.

💜 Airway inflammation and narrowing can reduce airflow and increase the effort required for ventilation.

💜 Rhonchi can sometimes decrease after coughing if the client successfully mobilizes the secretions.

💜 The nurse should encourage effective coughing, hydration when not contraindicated, and prescribed bronchodilator therapy.

💜 These abnormal lung sounds are therefore consistent with the airway obstruction and secretion retention associated with COPD.

❌ Abdominal assessment

💜 A soft abdomen with positive bowel sounds is a normal gastrointestinal assessment finding.

💜 This finding does not indicate chronic airflow obstruction, hyperinflation, or impaired pulmonary gas exchange.

💜 The abdominal assessment is not a finding specifically associated with COPD.

❌Heart sounds

💜 The absence of abnormal heart sounds represents a normal cardiovascular assessment finding.

💜 Although advanced COPD can eventually cause pulmonary hypertension and right-sided heart failure, no such findings are documented.

💜 The client’s normal heart sounds do not support the identification of COPD in this scenario.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 2

Correct Answers

Blank 1 Correct Option: naloxone
Blank 2 Correct Option: oxygen by face mask 10 L/min

Rationale :

✅ Naloxone

👉 Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of fentanyl administered during moderate sedation.

👉 Fentanyl can cause respiratory depression, decreased level of consciousness, and reduced protective airway reflexes.

👉 The combined administration of fentanyl, midazolam, and propofol increases the risk of excessive sedation and hypoventilation.

👉 Naloxone rapidly displaces fentanyl from opioid receptors, improving respiratory rate and ventilation.

👉 The nurse should continue monitoring the client’s respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and level of consciousness after administration.

👉 Naloxone has a shorter duration of action than many opioids, creating a risk for recurrent respiratory depression after the initial response.

👉 Additional naloxone doses may be required based on the client’s respiratory status and response to treatment.

👉 Emergency resuscitation equipment should remain readily available throughout moderate sedation and recovery.

✅ Oxygen by face mask at 10 L/min

👉 Oxygen delivered by a face mask at 10 L/min provides a higher oxygen concentration than the current nasal cannula setting.

👉 The client’s oxygen saturation has decreased from 100% on room air to 95% while receiving 2 L/min of oxygen.

👉 This reduction following sedative administration can indicate early sedation-related respiratory compromise.

👉 Propofol, fentanyl, and midazolam can suppress respiratory drive and reduce effective ventilation.

👉 High-flow oxygen supports tissue oxygenation while the nurse evaluates airway patency and respiratory effort.

👉 The nurse should assess chest movement, respiratory depth, breath sounds, and responsiveness during oxygen administration.

👉 Airway repositioning, suctioning, or assisted ventilation may be necessary if the client’s respiratory status continues to decline.

👉 Continuous pulse oximetry and cardiac monitoring are essential until the client returns to the presedation baseline.

Incorrect Answers

❌ An additional dose of propofol

👉 Propofol causes dose-dependent sedation, hypotension, and respiratory depression.

👉 An additional dose could worsen the client’s declining oxygen saturation and suppress ventilation further.

👉 The nurse should prioritize airway support and reversal of medication effects rather than increasing sedation.

❌ Propranolol

👉 Propranolol is a beta blocker used for conditions such as hypertension, dysrhythmias, and migraine prevention.

👉 The client’s heart rate and blood pressure do not indicate a need for beta-blocker therapy.

👉 Propranolol does not reverse sedation or treat opioid-induced respiratory depression.

❌ Acetaminophen

👉 Acetaminophen can treat mild to moderate pain but does not reverse the respiratory effects of procedural sedation.

👉 The immediate concern is potential airway and breathing compromise, not routine pain management.

👉 Administration of acetaminophen would delay interventions needed to protect oxygenation and ventilation.

❌ An additional dose of fentanyl

👉 Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic that can cause significant respiratory depression during moderate sedation.

👉 An additional dose could further decrease respiratory drive and oxygen saturation.

👉 The client requires opioid reversal and increased oxygen support rather than more fentanyl.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 3

Correct Answers:

Increase the IV infusion rate.

Rationale :

➡️ The client is exhibiting classic signs of hypovolemic shock caused by profuse vomiting and significant fluid volume loss.

➡️ The blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg, weak pulse of 114/min, tachypnea, restlessness, and anxiety indicate inadequate tissue perfusion.

➡️ Increasing the IV infusion rate rapidly restores intravascular volume, improves cardiac output, and enhances organ perfusion.

➡️ Prompt administration of isotonic crystalloid solutions, such as 0.9% sodium chloride or lactated Ringer's, is the first-line treatment for hypovolemic shock.

➡️ Restlessness and the statement, "I think I am dying," are early manifestations of decreased cerebral perfusion resulting from inadequate circulating blood volume.

➡️ Rapid fluid replacement addresses the underlying cause of the client's hypotension rather than temporarily treating only the symptoms.

➡️ Continuous monitoring of blood pressure, heart rate, urine output, mental status, and oxygen saturation is essential to evaluate the client's response to fluid resuscitation.

➡️ Hypovolemic shock requires immediate restoration of circulating volume to prevent multiple organ dysfunction and irreversible shock.

❌ Initiate oxygen therapy

➡️ Oxygen therapy increases the amount of oxygen available to the tissues but does not correct the client's severe fluid deficit.

➡️ The underlying problem is decreased circulating blood volume, resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion.

➡️ Oxygen may be administered as supportive therapy after or while aggressive fluid resuscitation is initiated.

❌ Elevate the client's feet

➡️ Elevating the client's feet may temporarily improve venous return to the heart.

➡️ This intervention does not replace the lost intravascular fluid volume responsible for the client's shock.

➡️ Rapid IV fluid replacement is a higher-priority intervention because it treats the underlying cause.

❌ Administer a vasoconstrictor

➡️ Vasoconstrictors are not the initial treatment for hypovolemic shock because they further reduce blood flow to already poorly perfused tissues.

➡️ Restoration of circulating blood volume should occur before considering vasopressor therapy.

➡️ Vasopressors may be indicated only if hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 4

Correct Answers:

"Light sensitivity is an adverse effect of this medication."

Rationale :

✅ Tetracycline commonly causes photosensitivity, making the skin much more sensitive to sunlight and ultraviolet (UV) rays.

✅ Clients taking tetracycline have an increased risk of developing severe sunburn, even after brief exposure to the sun.

✅ The nurse should instruct the client to wear protective clothing, use a broad-spectrum sunscreen, and avoid prolonged sun exposure during therapy.

✅ Photosensitivity can occur throughout the course of treatment and may persist until the medication has been completely eliminated from the body.

✅ Taking precautions against sun exposure helps prevent painful skin reactions and promotes safe medication use.

✅ The medication should be taken with a full glass of water while the client is in an upright position to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation.

✅ Clients should complete the entire prescribed course of tetracycline even if symptoms improve to ensure complete eradication of the infection and reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

✅ Recognition of photosensitivity as a common adverse effect allows the client to prevent avoidable complications while receiving tetracycline therapy.

❌ "You should take this medication at bedtime."

✅ Tetracycline should not be taken immediately before lying down because it can cause esophageal irritation or esophageal ulceration.

✅ Clients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.

✅ Administration with a full glass of water helps reduce irritation of the esophagus.

❌ "Constipation is an adverse effect of this medication."

✅ Constipation is not a common adverse effect of tetracycline therapy.

✅ Gastrointestinal upset, including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, occurs more frequently with this medication.

✅ Clients should report severe or persistent diarrhea because it may indicate Clostridioides difficile infection.

❌ "You can take this medication with milk."

✅ Milk, calcium, iron, magnesium, and antacids decrease the absorption of tetracycline by forming nonabsorbable complexes.

✅ Reduced absorption lowers the medication's effectiveness in treating bacterial infections.

✅ Clients should take tetracycline on an empty stomach unless otherwise directed by the healthcare provider.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 5

Correct Answers:

Ask the child to complete homework in an area with minimal distractions.

Rationale :

✳️ Children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) have difficulty maintaining attention and are easily distracted by environmental stimuli.

✳️ Completing homework in an area with minimal distractions improves the child's ability to focus and complete tasks successfully.

✳️ A quiet environment with limited noise, television, electronic devices, and unnecessary activity reduces interruptions in concentration.

✳️ Establishing a consistent homework location and routine promotes organization and reinforces positive study habits.

✳️ Breaking assignments into smaller, manageable tasks with short breaks can further improve attention and decrease frustration.

✳️ Positive reinforcement for completed tasks increases motivation and encourages appropriate behaviors in children with ADHD.

✳️ Maintaining a structured environment helps the child develop better self-control and improves academic performance over time.

✳️ Reducing environmental distractions is one of the most effective nonpharmacological strategies for improving concentration in children with ADHD.

❌ Have the child write assignments by hand instead of using a computer.

✳️ Writing assignments by hand does not improve the child's ability to concentrate.

✳️ Some children with ADHD may actually benefit from technology that supports organization and task completion.

✳️ Environmental structure is more effective than changing the method used to complete assignments.

❌ Vary the child's scheduled activities each day.

✳️ Children with ADHD benefit from consistent routines rather than frequently changing schedules.

✳️ Predictable daily activities reduce confusion and improve the child's ability to anticipate expectations.

✳️ Frequent changes in routine can increase distractibility and behavioral difficulties.

❌ Encourage the child to read a book during an outdoor school activity period.

✳️ Outdoor activity periods provide opportunities for physical activity, which can help reduce hyperactivity and improve attention afterward.

✳️ Reading in an outdoor environment introduces numerous distractions that interfere with concentration.

✳️ Scheduled exercise and active play are recommended components of ADHD management.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 6

Correct Answers:

Inject air into the regular insulin vial before injecting air into the NPH vial.

Rationale :

❤️ Regular insulin is a clear insulin, whereas NPH insulin is a cloudy insulin, requiring the nurse to follow the "clear before cloudy" principle when mixing the two insulins.

❤️ The nurse should inject air into the regular insulin vial first without withdrawing the medication, then inject air into the NPH insulin vial before withdrawing any insulin.

❤️ Regular insulin should always be withdrawn before NPH insulin to prevent contamination of the clear insulin vial with cloudy insulin.

❤️ Contamination of the regular insulin vial can alter its pharmacologic properties and lead to inaccurate dosing in future administrations.

❤️ NPH insulin should be rolled gently between the palms before preparation to evenly resuspend the insulin without creating air bubbles.

❤️ Accurate preparation of mixed insulin ensures the client receives the prescribed onset, peak, and duration of action for both insulin types.

❤️ Following the proper mixing sequence reduces the risk of medication errors, hypoglycemia, and hyperglycemia.

❤️ Remembering the mnemonic "Clear Before Cloudy" helps nurses safely prepare mixed insulin every time.

❌ Administer the mixture within 5 min of preparing it.

❤️ A mixture of regular insulin and NPH insulin does not have to be administered within 5 minutes of preparation.

❤️ The prepared syringe remains stable for a reasonable period according to institutional policy and manufacturer recommendations.

❤️ Proper mixing technique is more important than immediate administration in this situation.

❌ Shake both insulin vials for 2 min before withdrawing the doses.

❤️ NPH insulin should be rolled gently between the palms to evenly suspend the insulin particles before use.

❤️ Shaking the vial vigorously creates air bubbles, making accurate dose measurement difficult.

❤️ Regular insulin is a clear solution and should never be shaken because it does not require mixing.

❌ Withdraw the NPH insulin before the regular insulin.

❤️ Withdrawing NPH insulin before regular insulin contaminates the clear insulin with cloudy insulin.

❤️ Contamination changes the purity of regular insulin and may alter its expected therapeutic action.

❤️ Safe insulin preparation always follows the sequence of withdrawing regular (clear) insulin before NPH (cloudy) insulin.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 7

Correct Answers:

"What are the voices saying to you?"

Rationale :

🔸 Auditory hallucinations are a common positive symptom of schizophrenia and require further assessment to determine whether they pose a risk to the client or others.

🔸 Asking the client, "What are the voices saying to you?", helps the nurse assess the content of the hallucinations without validating that the voices are real.

🔸 The client's response allows the nurse to determine whether the hallucinations are command hallucinations, which may instruct the client to harm themselves or someone else.

🔸 Identifying the content of the voices guides the nurse in determining the urgency of interventions and the need for additional safety measures.

🔸 This therapeutic question demonstrates active listening, encourages the client to express their experience, and promotes a trusting nurse-client relationship.

🔸 Clients experiencing hallucinations often feel frightened or overwhelmed, making calm and nonjudgmental communication essential.

🔸 Assessment should always precede intervention because the nurse must first determine whether the hallucinations present an immediate safety risk.

🔸 Gathering detailed information about the hallucinations enables the healthcare team to develop an appropriate treatment and safety plan.

❌ "Have you missed your medication today?"

🔸 Medication nonadherence can contribute to worsening psychotic symptoms, but this question does not assess the client's immediate safety.

🔸 The priority is determining whether the hallucinations are placing the client or others at risk.

🔸 Medication adherence can be discussed after completing the initial assessment of the hallucinations.

❌ "Would you like to go to your therapy session now?"

🔸 Redirecting the client to therapy does not address the client's current experience with auditory hallucinations.

🔸 Immediate assessment is necessary before encouraging participation in another activity.

🔸 Therapeutic communication begins with exploring the client's present concerns.

❌ "Why are the voices talking to you?"

🔸 Asking "why" questions can make clients feel defensive and may hinder therapeutic communication.

🔸 This question also implies that the hallucinations are real, which can reinforce the client's delusion or hallucination.

🔸 The nurse should explore the content of the hallucinations without validating their existence.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 8

Correct Answers:

White fish

Rationale :

🔷 White fish is a lean protein that is low in fat, making it an appropriate food choice for clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

🔷 Low-fat foods empty from the stomach more quickly, reducing the likelihood of gastric reflux into the esophagus.

🔷 Lean proteins help meet the client's nutritional needs without significantly increasing gastric acid secretion.

🔷 Foods that are baked, grilled, broiled, or steamed are generally recommended instead of fried or heavily seasoned foods.

🔷 Clients with GERD should consume small, frequent meals to decrease stomach distention and lower the risk of reflux.

🔷 Remaining upright for at least 2 to 3 hours after eating helps prevent stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus.

🔷 Avoiding foods that relax the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) or increase acid production reduces the frequency and severity of reflux symptoms.

🔷 Choosing lean proteins, such as white fish, is an important dietary modification for long-term management of GERD.

❌ Hot cocoa

🔷 Hot cocoa contains chocolate, which can relax the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) and increase acid reflux.

🔷 Chocolate may also stimulate gastric acid secretion, worsening GERD symptoms.

🔷 Clients with GERD should limit or avoid chocolate-containing beverages and foods.

❌ Tomato soup

🔷 Tomato soup is highly acidic and can irritate the esophageal lining.

🔷 Acidic foods commonly trigger heartburn and worsen reflux symptoms in clients with GERD.

🔷 Clients should limit foods made from tomatoes, citrus fruits, and other acidic ingredients.

❌ Decaffeinated coffee

🔷 Decaffeinated coffee still contains compounds that can stimulate gastric acid production and promote reflux.

🔷 Removing caffeine does not eliminate coffee's potential to aggravate GERD symptoms.

🔷 Clients with GERD should avoid both regular and decaffeinated coffee if symptoms occur after consumption.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 9

Correct Answers:

Instruct the client to use an overbed trapeze to move around in bed.

Rationale :

💠 An overbed trapeze enables the client to reposition independently while minimizing pressure on the residual limb following a below-the-knee amputation (BKA).

💠 Independent movement in bed promotes mobility, reduces the risk of skin breakdown, and enhances the client's participation in postoperative recovery.

💠 Using a trapeze decreases friction and shearing forces that can damage healing tissues around the surgical site.

💠 Early mobility helps prevent postoperative complications such as atelectasis, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and muscle weakness.

💠 The client should avoid placing excessive pressure directly on the residual limb during repositioning.

💠 Safe repositioning techniques also improve comfort and encourage gradual independence with activities of daily living.

💠 Teaching proper use of an overbed trapeze prepares the client for rehabilitation and future mobility training with a prosthesis.

💠 Promoting safe mobility is an essential nursing priority during the immediate postoperative period after an amputation.

❌ Place the client on an air mattress.

💠 An air mattress may help prevent pressure injuries in clients at high risk for skin breakdown, but it is not routinely required 12 hours after a below-the-knee amputation.

💠 Early postoperative care focuses primarily on safe positioning, pain management, and mobility.

💠 Routine use of an air mattress is not the priority intervention in this situation.

❌ Turn the client every 4 hr while in bed.

💠 Postoperative clients should be repositioned at least every 2 hours to reduce the risk of pressure injuries and improve circulation.

💠 Waiting 4 hours between position changes increases the likelihood of skin breakdown and other immobility-related complications.

💠 Frequent repositioning promotes tissue perfusion and enhances postoperative recovery.

❌ Rewrap the bandage every 8 hr in a circular pattern.

💠 The residual limb should be wrapped in a figure-eight pattern, not a circular pattern.

💠 A circular wrap can impair circulation, increase edema, and delay healing.

💠 The figure-eight technique provides uniform compression and helps shape the residual limb for future prosthesis fitting.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Answer 10

Correct Answers:

Blurred vision

Rationale :

➡️ Blurred vision is a classic manifestation of digoxin toxicity and often occurs early in the development of toxicity.

➡️ Clients may also report yellow vision (xanthopsia), green halos, or blurred vision due to the effects of digoxin on the retina and optic pathways.

➡️ Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that small increases in the serum concentration can produce toxic effects.

➡️ Additional manifestations of digoxin toxicity include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, confusion, and bradycardia.

➡️ The nurse should assess the client's apical pulse before administering digoxin and withhold the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameter, commonly less than 60/min in adults.

➡️ Hypokalemia significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because low potassium levels enhance the medication's effects on the myocardium.

➡️ The nurse should notify the provider immediately if signs of toxicity develop and anticipate obtaining a serum digoxin level and serum potassium level.

➡️ Early recognition of visual disturbances helps prevent life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias associated with severe digoxin toxicity.

❌ Insomnia

➡️ Insomnia is not a common manifestation of digoxin toxicity.

➡️ Clients experiencing toxicity are more likely to develop fatigue, confusion, or changes in mental status.

➡️ Visual disturbances and cardiac dysrhythmias are more characteristic findings.

❌ Tachycardia

➡️ Bradycardia, not tachycardia, is a more common manifestation of digoxin toxicity.

➡️ Digoxin slows conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, resulting in a decreased heart rate.

➡️ The nurse should monitor for bradycardia, irregular pulse, and other cardiac dysrhythmias.

❌ Hearing loss

➡️ Hearing loss is not associated with digoxin toxicity.

➡️ The medication primarily affects the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, neurologic, and visual systems.

➡️ Visual disturbances are a hallmark finding and should prompt immediate assessment for toxicity.

Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Post Assessment (1)

No.

1 :
A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit.

Answer Options

2 :
A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.

Correct Answers

4 :
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for tetracycline. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

5 :
A nurse is providing teaching to a guardian of a child who has ADHD. Which of the following strategies should the nurse suggest to improve the child's ability to concentrate?

6 :
A nurse is preparing regular and NPH insulin in the same syringe for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

7 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. The client states, "The voices in my head are driving me crazy." Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?

8 :
A nurse is teaching a client who has GERD about appropriate dietary choices. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

9 :
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postoperative following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

10 :
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking digoxin to treat chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is developing digoxin toxicity?

Connect With Us

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Post Assessment (1)

No.

1 : A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit.

Answer Options

2 : A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.

Correct Answers

4 : A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for tetracycline. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

5 : A nurse is providing teaching to a guardian of a child who has ADHD. Which of the following strategies should the nurse suggest to improve the child's ability to concentrate?

6 : A nurse is preparing regular and NPH insulin in the same syringe for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

7 : A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. The client states, "The voices in my head are driving me crazy." Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?

8 : A nurse is teaching a client who has GERD about appropriate dietary choices. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

9 : A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postoperative following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

10 : A nurse is assessing a client who is taking digoxin to treat chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is developing digoxin toxicity?

1 :
A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit.

2 :
A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.

4 :
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for tetracycline. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

5 :
A nurse is providing teaching to a guardian of a child who has ADHD. Which of the following strategies should the nurse suggest to improve the child's ability to concentrate?

6 :
A nurse is preparing regular and NPH insulin in the same syringe for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

7 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. The client states, "The voices in my head are driving me crazy." Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?

8 :
A nurse is teaching a client who has GERD about appropriate dietary choices. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

9 :
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postoperative following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

10 :
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking digoxin to treat chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is developing digoxin toxicity?