1 :

Hint : 👉 Older adults (≥50 years) → Think Shingles (Herpes Zoster) vaccine.

Correct Answers:

  • Herpes zoster


Rationale :

👉 The herpes zoster vaccine is recommended for adults 50 years of age and older to help prevent shingles and its complications.

👉 Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox.

👉 Older adults are at increased risk because the immune system naturally weakens with age, allowing the virus to reactivate.

👉 The vaccine significantly reduces the risk of developing shingles and postherpetic neuralgia, a painful complication that can persist for months or years.

👉 The currently recommended vaccine is the recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix®), which is given as a 2-dose series.

👉 The vaccine is recommended even if the person has had shingles previously or received the older live zoster vaccine.

👉 Common side effects include pain, redness, and swelling at the injection site, along with mild fatigue or muscle aches.

👉 Therefore, the herpes zoster vaccine is an important immunization recommended for older adults.

❌ Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP)

👉 DTaP is routinely administered to infants and children younger than 7 years.

👉 Older adolescents and adults receive the Tdap vaccine, followed by a Td or Tdap booster every 10 years, not DTaP.

👉 Therefore, DTaP is not the recommended vaccine for older adults.

❌ Rotavirus

👉 The rotavirus vaccine is administered only to infants, beginning at approximately 2 months of age.

👉 It protects against severe rotavirus gastroenteritis in young children.

👉 It is not indicated for adults or older adults.

❌ Human papillomavirus (HPV)

👉 The HPV vaccine is routinely recommended for adolescents and young adults, typically beginning at 11–12 years of age.

👉 Catch-up vaccination is recommended only through certain adult age groups based on current guidelines.

👉 It is not routinely recommended for older adults.


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2 :

Hint : 👉 Anorexia nervosa → Think electrolyte imbalance first, especially low potassium (hypokalemia).

Correct Answers:

  • Electrolyte level


Rationale :

👉 Clients with anorexia nervosa are at high risk for electrolyte imbalances due to severe malnutrition, vomiting, laxative abuse, or excessive exercise.

👉 The nurse should anticipate regular monitoring of potassium, sodium, chloride, magnesium, and phosphate levels.

👉 Hypokalemia (low potassium) is a common and potentially life-threatening complication that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness.

👉 Electrolyte abnormalities may also cause fatigue, dizziness, confusion, dehydration, and seizures if left untreated.

👉 Monitoring electrolyte levels helps evaluate the client's hydration status and nutritional recovery.

👉 During nutritional rehabilitation, electrolyte monitoring is essential to detect refeeding syndrome, a potentially fatal shift in fluids and electrolytes.

👉 The nurse should also monitor ECG changes, especially if potassium levels are abnormal, because electrolyte disturbances can affect cardiac conduction.

👉 Therefore, electrolyte level testing is one of the most important laboratory assessments for a client with anorexia nervosa.

❌ Uric acid level

👉 Uric acid levels are more commonly monitored in conditions such as gout, kidney stones, or tumor lysis syndrome.

👉 Although nutritional disorders may occasionally affect uric acid, it is not the priority laboratory test for anorexia nervosa.

👉 Electrolyte monitoring is far more important because of the immediate risk of cardiac complications.

❌ Amylase level

👉 Amylase levels may be elevated in clients who frequently induce vomiting because of salivary gland enlargement.

👉 However, amylase is not routinely the primary laboratory test used to monitor anorexia nervosa.

👉 Electrolyte abnormalities pose a much greater immediate health risk.

❌ Cholesterol level

👉 Clients with anorexia nervosa may have unexpectedly elevated cholesterol levels despite being underweight.

👉 However, cholesterol testing is not the priority assessment during initial evaluation and ongoing monitoring.

👉 Preventing complications from electrolyte disturbances takes precedence.


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3 :

Hint : 👉 IVU/IVP + Contrast dye = Expect a temporary warm flushing sensation and metallic taste.

Correct Answers:

  • "You may feel a warm sensation after the dye is injected."


Rationale :

👉 Intravenous excretory urography (IVU/IVP) is a diagnostic imaging procedure used to evaluate the kidneys, ureters, and bladder using an iodinated contrast dye.

👉 During the procedure, the contrast medium is injected into a peripheral vein, and X-ray images are taken as the dye is filtered and excreted by the kidneys.

👉 It is normal for the client to experience a temporary warm or flushed sensation, a metallic taste in the mouth, or a feeling of needing to urinate immediately after the contrast is injected.

👉 These sensations are expected, harmless, and usually disappear within a few minutes.

👉 Before the procedure, the nurse should assess the client for a history of allergy to iodine, shellfish, or previous contrast media reactions, as these increase the risk of an allergic reaction.

👉 The nurse should also review the client's renal function (serum creatinine and BUN) because impaired kidney function increases the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy.

👉 After the procedure, the client should be encouraged to increase fluid intake (unless contraindicated) to help eliminate the contrast dye through the kidneys.

👉 Therefore, informing the client that they may feel a warm sensation after the dye is injected is an important part of pre-procedure teaching.

❌ "You will need to be on bed rest following the procedure."

👉 Bed rest is not routinely required after an intravenous excretory urography.

👉 Most clients can resume normal activities after the procedure unless otherwise instructed by the healthcare provider.

👉 The priority after the procedure is adequate hydration to promote dye excretion.

❌ "You will not need to receive bowel preparation before the procedure."

👉 Bowel preparation is often required before an IVU to reduce stool and intestinal gas that may interfere with visualization of the urinary tract.

👉 The client may be instructed to take a laxative or follow dietary restrictions before the examination.

👉 Therefore, stating that bowel preparation is not needed is incorrect.

❌ "Your urine will appear bright yellow after the procedure."

👉 The contrast dye is colorless and does not change the color of the urine.

👉 The urine should appear normal after the procedure.

👉 The client should instead be encouraged to drink plenty of fluids to help flush the contrast from the body.


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4 :

Hint : 👉 Chest tube complication = Think "Crepitus (subcutaneous emphysema) = Air leaking into the tissues."

Correct Answers:

  • Subcutaneous crackles palpable at the insertion site


Rationale :

👉 Subcutaneous crackles, also called subcutaneous emphysema (crepitus), occur when air leaks from the lung or chest tube into the subcutaneous tissues beneath the skin.

👉 When palpating the area around the chest tube insertion site, the nurse may feel a crackling or popping sensation, similar to Rice Krispies® under the skin.

👉 This finding suggests that air is escaping into the tissues instead of remaining within the chest drainage system.

👉 Subcutaneous emphysema may result from a dislodged chest tube, an air leak, or improper tube placement, and it requires prompt assessment.

👉 If the amount of crepitus increases or is associated with dyspnea, decreased breath sounds, or worsening respiratory distress, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately.

👉 The nurse should assess the chest tube connections, dressing, water-seal chamber, respiratory status, oxygen saturation, and breath sounds to identify the cause of the air leak.

👉 Untreated subcutaneous emphysema can progress and, in severe cases, compromise the airway or respiratory function.

👉 Therefore, subcutaneous crackles at the insertion site are considered a potential complication following chest tube insertion.

❌ 40 mL of bloody drainage in an hour

👉 A small amount of bloody drainage is expected during the first few hours after chest tube insertion.

👉 40 mL in one hour is generally considered within the expected range and should simply be monitored.

👉 The nurse should become concerned if there is sudden excessive drainage (e.g., >100 mL/hour or according to facility policy) or a rapid increase in bleeding.

❌ Gentle bubbling in the water-seal chamber with exhalations

👉 In a client with a pneumothorax, intermittent bubbling during exhalation or coughing is an expected finding initially.

👉 This indicates that air is being evacuated from the pleural space.

👉 Continuous bubbling, however, may indicate an air leak and requires further investigation.

❌ Pain when deep breathing

👉 Mild to moderate pain with deep breathing or coughing is expected after chest tube insertion because of tissue trauma.

👉 The nurse should administer prescribed analgesics and encourage deep breathing to promote lung expansion.

👉 Pain alone does not indicate a chest tube complication unless it becomes sudden, severe, or is associated with respiratory deterioration.


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5 :

Hint : 👉 Fire Safety = RACE

Correct Answers:

  • Remove the client from the room.


Rationale :

👉 The nurse should first remove the client from immediate danger to ensure the client's safety.

👉 Fire emergencies follow the RACE protocol:

R – Rescue anyone in immediate danger.

A – Activate the fire alarm.

C – Contain the fire by closing doors and windows.

E – Extinguish the fire if it is small and safe to do so, or Evacuate if necessary.

👉 Because the fire is in an occupied client room, the client's life is the highest priority.

👉 The nurse should quickly move the client to a safe location before attempting any other actions.

👉 After the client is safe, the nurse should activate the fire alarm to notify other staff and initiate the facility's fire response plan.

👉 Next, the nurse should close the door to help contain the fire and limit the spread of smoke and flames.

👉 If the fire is small and the nurse has been trained to use a fire extinguisher, the nurse may attempt to extinguish it using the PASS technique:

P – Pull the pin

A – Aim at the base of the fire

S – Squeeze the handle

S – Sweep from side to side

👉 Therefore, the first action is to remove the client from the room.

❌ Use a fire extinguisher in the room.

👉 Using a fire extinguisher is not the first priority when a client is in immediate danger.

👉 The nurse should only attempt to extinguish the fire after ensuring the client's safety.

👉 Client rescue always comes before firefighting.

❌ Close the client's door to contain the fire.

👉 Closing the door is the Contain step of the RACE protocol.

👉 It is performed after rescuing the client and activating the alarm.

👉 It helps slow the spread of smoke and flames but is not the first action.

❌ Activate the fire alarm.

👉 Activating the fire alarm is an important step because it alerts staff and initiates the emergency response.

👉 However, according to the RACE protocol, Rescue comes before Alarm.

👉 The client must be removed from immediate danger first.


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6 :

Hint : 👉 Orthostatic hypotension = ↓ SBP ≥20 mm Hg OR ↓ DBP ≥10 mm Hg after changing position.

Correct Answers:

  • The client's systolic blood pressure decreases by 25 mm Hg.


Rationale :

👉 Orthostatic hypotension (also called postural hypotension) is a significant drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person changes from a lying or sitting position to standing.

👉 It is defined as a decrease in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg within 3 minutes of standing.

👉 In this scenario, a 25 mm Hg drop in systolic blood pressure exceeds the diagnostic criterion and indicates orthostatic hypotension.

👉 Clients taking antihypertensive medications are at increased risk because these drugs lower blood pressure and may impair the body's ability to compensate for position changes.

👉 Common symptoms include dizziness, lightheadedness, blurred vision, weakness, fainting (syncope), and unsteadiness when standing.

👉 The nurse should advise the client to change positions slowly, especially when moving from lying to sitting or standing, to reduce the risk of falls.

👉 If orthostatic hypotension occurs, the nurse should assist the client back to a safe position, monitor vital signs, and notify the healthcare provider if the symptoms persist or worsen.

👉 Therefore, a 25 mm Hg decrease in systolic blood pressure is the finding that indicates orthostatic hypotension.

❌ The Client's Heart Rate Increases by 10/min

👉 A slight increase in heart rate is a normal compensatory response when changing positions.

👉 An increase of 10 beats/minute alone does not meet the criteria for orthostatic hypotension.

👉 The diagnosis is based primarily on the drop in blood pressure, not heart rate.

❌ The Client Reports Heart Palpitations

👉 Heart palpitations may occur for many reasons, including anxiety, arrhythmias, caffeine intake, or medication effects.

👉 Palpitations alone are not a diagnostic sign of orthostatic hypotension.

👉 Blood pressure changes must be present to confirm the condition.

❌ The Client's Diastolic Blood Pressure Increases by 10 mm Hg

👉 Orthostatic hypotension is characterized by a decrease, not an increase, in blood pressure.

👉 An increase in diastolic pressure does not indicate orthostatic hypotension.

👉 Diagnostic criteria require a drop of at least 10 mm Hg in diastolic pressure.


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7 :

Hint : 👉 Hypocalcemia = "CATS Go Numb"

Correct Answers:

  • Tetany


Rationale :

👉 Hypocalcemia is a condition in which the serum calcium level falls below the normal range, resulting in increased neuromuscular excitability.

👉 One of the classic manifestations of hypocalcemia is tetany, which is characterized by painful, involuntary muscle spasms and sustained muscle contractions.

👉 Clients may experience muscle cramps, numbness and tingling (especially around the mouth and fingertips), hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and carpopedal spasms.

👉 The nurse should assess for positive Chvostek's sign (facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve is tapped) and positive Trousseau's sign (carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated).

👉 Severe hypocalcemia can lead to laryngospasm, bronchospasm, seizures, and cardiac dysrhythmias, making prompt recognition essential.

👉 ECG changes associated with hypocalcemia include a prolonged QT interval, which increases the risk of ventricular dysrhythmias.

👉 Nursing management includes monitoring calcium levels, administering calcium supplements as prescribed, encouraging calcium- and vitamin D-rich foods, and implementing seizure precautions if indicated.

👉 Therefore, tetany is the expected manifestation of hypocalcemia.

❌ Painful Bones

👉 Bone pain is more commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism, bone tumors, fractures, osteoporosis, or Paget's disease.

👉 Although chronic calcium disorders can affect bone health, painful bones are not a classic manifestation of acute hypocalcemia.

👉 Hypocalcemia primarily affects the neuromuscular and cardiovascular systems.

❌ Constipation

👉 Constipation is a common manifestation of hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia.

👉 Hypocalcemia is more likely to cause increased neuromuscular activity, resulting in muscle cramps and tetany.

👉 Therefore, constipation is not an expected finding.

❌ Shortened QT Interval on ECG

👉 Hypocalcemia causes a prolonged QT interval, not a shortened one.

👉 A shortened QT interval is characteristic of hypercalcemia.

👉 The nurse should monitor clients with hypocalcemia for ECG changes because prolonged QT intervals increase the risk of dysrhythmias.


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8 :

Hint : 👉 Tuberculosis = Airborne Precautions = Negative Pressure Room + N95 Respirator.

Correct Answers:

  • Place the client in a negative air pressure room.


Rationale :

👉 Tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs.

👉 Clients with suspected or confirmed active pulmonary TB should be placed in an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with negative air pressure.

👉 A negative pressure room prevents airborne droplet nuclei from escaping into the hallway, reducing the risk of transmission to healthcare workers and other clients.

👉 Healthcare providers should wear a fit-tested N95 respirator (or higher-level respirator) when entering the client's room because TB is spread through airborne particles, not large respiratory droplets.

👉 The client should remain in airborne isolation until they are no longer considered infectious, which is typically determined by clinical improvement and negative sputum results according to facility policy.

👉 If the client must leave the room for a procedure, they should wear a surgical mask to reduce the spread of infectious droplets during transport.

👉 The nurse should encourage cough etiquette, hand hygiene, adherence to the prescribed anti-tubercular medications, and proper ventilation to prevent transmission.

👉 Therefore, placing the client in a negative air pressure room is the priority intervention when caring for a client with active tuberculosis.

❌ Stay at least 2 feet away from the client.

👉 Tuberculosis is transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air for long periods.

👉 Simply staying 2 feet away does not provide adequate protection against airborne transmission.

👉 Airborne precautions and an N95 respirator are required.

❌ Double bag the client's soiled linens.

👉 Standard handling of soiled linens is sufficient when using standard precautions.

👉 Double bagging is not routinely required unless the linens are saturated or facility policy indicates otherwise.

👉 TB is spread through the air, not by contaminated linens.

❌ Don a Surgical Mask Before Entering the Client's Room.

👉 A surgical mask does not adequately filter airborne particles such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

👉 Healthcare workers must wear a fit-tested N95 respirator or equivalent when entering the room of a client with active TB.

👉 Surgical masks are worn by the client during transport, not by staff providing airborne isolation care.


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9 :

Hint : mL/hr = Prescribed dose (units/hr) ÷ Concentration (units/mL)

Correct Answers:

  • 10


Rationale :

🧮 Step 1: Calculate the concentration

25,000 units ÷ 250 mL = 100 units/mL

🧮 Step 2: Calculate the infusion rate

1,000 units/hr ÷ 100 units/mL = 10 mL/hr

✅ Final Answer:

10 mL/hr


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10 :

Hint : 👉 Postpartum perineal pain:

Correct Answers:

  • Encourage the use of witch hazel pads after cleansing the perineum.


Rationale :

👉 Witch hazel pads provide a cooling and soothing effect, helping to relieve perineal pain, swelling, and inflammation during the postpartum period.

👉 They are commonly recommended for women who have episiotomies, perineal lacerations, or hemorrhoids following vaginal delivery.

👉 The nurse should instruct the client to cleanse the perineal area from front to back before applying the pads to reduce the risk of infection.

👉 Witch hazel pads help decrease edema, promote comfort, and reduce irritation without interfering with tissue healing.

👉 The pads can be changed each time the perineal pad is changed or after each episode of perineal cleansing.

👉 Additional comfort measures include ice packs during the first 24 hours, oral analgesics as prescribed, and a warm sitz bath after the first 24 hours.

👉 The nurse should also assess the perineum regularly using the REEDA scale (Redness, Edema, Ecchymosis, Discharge, and Approximation) to monitor healing.

👉 Therefore, encouraging the use of witch hazel pads after cleansing the perineum is an appropriate nursing intervention for postpartum perineal pain.

❌ Apply anesthetic cream to the perineum every 4 hr around the clock.

👉 Topical anesthetic creams may be prescribed, but they should only be used as ordered and when needed, not automatically every 4 hours.

👉 Routine scheduled application may increase the risk of skin irritation or excessive medication exposure.

👉 The nurse should follow the provider's prescription and facility protocol.

❌ Place the client in a prone position.

👉 The prone position is not routinely recommended for relieving postpartum perineal pain.

👉 Most postpartum clients are more comfortable in a side-lying or semi-Fowler's position, which reduces pressure on the perineum.

👉 Position changes should promote comfort without increasing discomfort.

❌ Recommend the use of a sitz bath one time each day.

👉 A warm sitz bath is helpful for relieving perineal pain after the first 24 hours postpartum.

👉 However, it is usually recommended several times a day (2–4 times daily or after bowel movements) rather than only once a day.

👉 Recommending a sitz bath only once daily is not the most effective intervention.


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Total Questions: 10

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