Question

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic UTIs. The client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin 250 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Drink 2 to 3 L of fluids daily.

Rationale :

❣️ Drinking 2 to 3 L of fluids daily, unless contraindicated, helps maintain adequate urine production and promotes flushing of the urinary tract.

❣️ Increased urinary flow helps reduce urinary stasis, which can contribute to bacterial growth and recurrent urinary tract infections.

❣️ Adequate hydration encourages more frequent urination, helping remove bacteria from the bladder and urethra.

❣️ Fluids also help dilute the urine, which may decrease urinary discomfort such as burning and irritation during a UTI.

❣️ The client should take ciprofloxacin exactly as prescribed and complete the entire course even when UTI symptoms begin to improve.

❣️ Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that works by interfering with bacterial DNA replication and is used when appropriate for susceptible urinary infections.

❣️ Adequate fluid intake is especially important with ciprofloxacin because maintaining good hydration helps reduce the risk of highly concentrated urine and crystalluria.

❣️ Therefore, encouraging 2 to 3 L of fluids each day is the most appropriate discharge instruction, provided the client does not have a condition requiring fluid restriction.

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Answer 2

Correct Answers:

A It verifies the IV line is working properly.

Rationale :

✳️ Flushing an IV before medication administration helps verify IV patency, meaning the catheter and tubing are open and functioning properly.

✳️ When normal saline flushes easily without resistance, the nurse has evidence that fluid can travel through the IV catheter as intended.

✳️ The nurse should simultaneously assess the site for pain, swelling, redness, leaking, or coolness, which can indicate IV complications.

✳️ Resistance or discomfort during flushing can indicate occlusion, infiltration, phlebitis, or catheter displacement, requiring further assessment before medication administration.

✳️ Verifying patency before administering medication helps prevent medication from entering the surrounding tissue instead of the bloodstream.

✳️ Flushing after medication administration helps clear the medication remaining within the IV tubing or catheter, allowing the client to receive the prescribed dose.

✳️ A post-medication flush can also help maintain catheter patency and prevent incompatible medications from mixing in the line when performed according to protocol.

✳️ Therefore, the primary teaching point is that flushing helps confirm the IV line is functioning properly before medication administration and helps maintain its patency afterward.

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Answer 3

Correct Answers:

Use of a loop diuretic
Chronic infections of the middle ear
Perforation of the eardrum

Rationale :

✅ Use of a loop diuretic — RISK FACTOR

🧿 Certain loop diuretics, particularly furosemide and ethacrynic acid, can have ototoxic effects and contribute to hearing impairment.

🧿 Ototoxicity can damage structures within the inner ear, resulting in tinnitus or sensorineural hearing loss.

🧿 The risk can increase with high doses, rapid IV administration, renal impairment, or concurrent use of other ototoxic medications.

🧿 Other medications associated with ototoxicity include aminoglycoside antibiotics, some chemotherapy agents, and salicylates at high doses.

🧿 Clients receiving potentially ototoxic medications should be assessed for tinnitus, decreased hearing, dizziness, or balance disturbances.

🧿 The nurse should review the client's medication history when assessing unexplained changes in auditory function.

🧿 Clients should be instructed to report new ringing in the ears or hearing changes promptly so the healthcare provider can evaluate the symptoms.

🧿 Therefore, use of a loop diuretic is an important medication-related risk factor for hearing loss.

✅ Chronic infections of the middle ear — RISK FACTOR

🧿 Recurrent or chronic otitis media can cause persistent inflammation and fluid accumulation within the middle ear.

🧿 Middle-ear fluid interferes with normal transmission of sound from the tympanic membrane through the ossicles, potentially causing conductive hearing loss.

🧿 Repeated infections may result in scarring or structural damage to the tympanic membrane and middle-ear structures.

🧿 Persistent hearing impairment can affect communication, speech perception, learning, and social functioning.

🧿 Chronic infection may also lead to complications involving the mastoid or other surrounding structures if inadequately treated.

🧿 Assessment may include otoscopic examination, tympanometry, and audiometric testing when hearing impairment is suspected.

🧿 Prompt evaluation and appropriate treatment of recurrent middle-ear infections can help reduce the risk of long-term auditory complications.

🧿 Therefore, chronic middle-ear infections are a recognized risk factor for hearing loss.

✅ Perforation of the eardrum — RISK FACTOR

🧿 A perforated tympanic membrane disrupts the normal mechanism by which sound vibrations are transmitted through the middle ear.

🧿 The resulting impairment in sound conduction can produce conductive hearing loss.

🧿 Tympanic membrane perforation can result from infection, trauma, sudden pressure changes, or insertion of objects into the ear canal.

🧿 The degree of hearing loss depends partly on the size and location of the perforation and whether other middle-ear structures are damaged.

🧿 A perforation can also make the middle ear more vulnerable to infection, particularly if contaminated water enters the ear.

🧿 Clients should avoid inserting objects into the affected ear and should follow instructions regarding keeping the ear dry while healing.

🧿 Many uncomplicated perforations heal spontaneously, but persistent perforations may require specialist evaluation or surgical repair.

🧿 Therefore, perforation of the eardrum is an important structural risk factor for hearing impairment.

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Answer 4

Correct Answers:

Naloxone

Rationale :

♦️ Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse serious adverse effects of opioids such as morphine.

♦️ A respiratory rate of 8/min indicates significant respiratory depression, one of the most dangerous complications of opioid administration.

♦️ The blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg indicates severe hypotension, which can also occur with excessive opioid effects.

♦️ Naloxone works by competitively blocking opioids at opioid receptors, particularly the mu (μ) receptors responsible for respiratory depression, analgesia, and sedation.

♦️ After naloxone administration, the nurse should closely monitor respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, level of consciousness, and blood pressure for improvement.

♦️ Naloxone may have a shorter duration of action than morphine, meaning respiratory depression can recur after the initial reversal.

♦️ Repeat doses or an infusion of naloxone may therefore be necessary while maintaining appropriate airway and respiratory support according to the client's condition and prescribed protocol.

♦️ Naloxone also reverses analgesia and can precipitate acute withdrawal in opioid-dependent clients, so the nurse should continue careful assessment after administration.

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Answer 5

Correct Answers:

"Refrain from wearing any type of artificial nails."

Rationale :

✅ “Refrain from wearing any type of artificial nails.” — CORRECT

♠️ A central venous access device (CVAD) provides direct access to the central circulation, so preventing infection is a major priority.

♠️ Artificial nails can harbor greater numbers of microorganisms than natural nails, even when routine hand hygiene is performed.

♠️ Microorganisms carried on the hands can contaminate the catheter, dressing, connector, or access port during home care.

♠️ Central-line contamination can lead to a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI), which can become serious or life-threatening.

♠️ Clients performing their own central-line care should maintain excellent hand hygiene before touching any part of the catheter or supplies.

♠️ Fingernails should be maintained clean and appropriately trimmed, reducing areas where microorganisms can accumulate.

♠️ Infection-prevention teaching should also include keeping the dressing clean, dry, intact, and monitoring the insertion site for redness, swelling, warmth, drainage, or tenderness.

♠️ Therefore, instructing the client to avoid artificial nails is appropriate discharge teaching for long-term central venous access care.

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Answer 6

Correct Answers:

Stand directly in front of the client before speaking.

Rationale :

✍️ Standing directly in front of the client allows the client to clearly see the nurse's face, lips, and facial expressions during communication.

✍️ Clients with partial hearing loss often rely on visual cues and lip movements to supplement the sounds they are able to hear.

✍️ The nurse should establish the client's attention before speaking, which reduces the chance that important information will be missed.

✍️ The nurse should speak clearly, naturally, and at a moderate pace rather than exaggerating words or shouting.

✍️ Facing the client also prevents the nurse's voice from being directed away from the client, which can make speech more difficult to understand.

✍️ The nurse should minimize background noise, such as television, radio, or unnecessary conversations, because competing sounds can interfere with hearing.

✍️ Good lighting should be maintained so the client can easily observe facial expressions and lip movements.

✍️ Therefore, positioning oneself directly in front of the client is the most appropriate intervention for improving communication with a client who has partial hearing loss.

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Answer 7

Correct Answers:

Agitation

Rationale :

✅ Agitation — CORRECT

🔆 Agitation and restlessness can be early manifestations of respiratory failure because inadequate oxygenation affects the brain and central nervous system.

🔆 As arterial oxygen levels decrease, cerebral hypoxia can cause behavioral and neurological changes before more obvious signs of severe respiratory compromise appear.

🔆 The client may initially become restless, anxious, irritable, confused, or agitated as oxygen delivery to brain tissue decreases.

🔆 Progressing respiratory failure can cause worsening confusion, lethargy, decreased level of consciousness, and eventually coma if hypoxemia is not corrected.

🔆 The nurse should immediately assess the client's respiratory rate, depth, effort, breath sounds, oxygen saturation, and airway patency when unexplained agitation develops.

🔆 Additional signs of respiratory failure can include dyspnea, tachypnea, accessory-muscle use, cyanosis, abnormal arterial blood gases, and changes in level of consciousness.

🔆 Arterial blood gas testing may demonstrate significant hypoxemia and/or hypercapnia, depending on the underlying type and cause of respiratory failure.

🔆 Therefore, new or unexplained agitation should alert the nurse to possible inadequate oxygenation and developing respiratory failure.

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Answer 8

Correct Answers:

Hemophilia

Rationale :

✅ Hemophilia — CORRECT

❣️ Hemophilia is an inherited bleeding disorder characterized by a deficiency of specific clotting factors, resulting in impaired blood clot formation.

❣️ Massage applies pressure and mechanical manipulation to the skin, muscles, and underlying soft tissues, which can damage small blood vessels.

❣️ A client with hemophilia has an increased risk of prolonged bleeding and bruising following even relatively minor tissue trauma.

❣️ Deep or vigorous massage can potentially cause soft-tissue bleeding, hematoma formation, or bleeding into muscles and joints.

❣️ Joint bleeding, known as hemarthrosis, is already an important complication of hemophilia and can cause pain, swelling, and progressive joint damage.

❣️ Massage over an area of active bleeding could potentially worsen tissue injury and hemorrhage rather than relieve discomfort.

❣️ Clients with significant bleeding disorders should therefore avoid massage unless it has been specifically determined to be safe by the appropriate healthcare provider or specialist.

❣️ Therefore, hemophilia is the strongest contraindication among the options because massage-related tissue manipulation can increase the client's risk for bleeding and hematoma formation.

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Answer 9

Correct Answers:

Myocardial infarction

Rationale :

✳️ Sumatriptan is a selective serotonin 5-HT₁B/5-HT₁D receptor agonist used for the acute treatment of migraine headaches.

✳️ Sumatriptan relieves migraines partly by producing cranial blood-vessel vasoconstriction and decreasing release of inflammatory neuropeptides.

✳️ The medication can also cause coronary artery vasoconstriction, which can reduce blood flow to the myocardium.

✳️ A history of myocardial infarction (MI) indicates underlying ischemic coronary artery disease and places the client at increased risk for further myocardial ischemia.

✳️ Giving sumatriptan to a client with previous MI could potentially precipitate coronary vasospasm, angina, myocardial ischemia, or another infarction.

✳️ Sumatriptan is therefore contraindicated in clients with ischemic coronary artery disease, previous MI, coronary vasospasm, and certain other significant cardiovascular disorders.

✳️ Clients taking sumatriptan should be instructed to seek immediate medical attention for significant chest pain, pressure, shortness of breath, or other symptoms suggestive of myocardial ischemia.

✳️ Therefore, a history of myocardial infarction is the condition that makes sumatriptan inappropriate among the options provided.

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Answer 10

Correct Answers:

Measure the amount of the dialysate outflow.
Monitor the access site for drainage.
Reposition the client onto the other side

Rationale :

✅ Measure the amount of the dialysate outflow — CORRECT

🧿 Measuring the dialysate outflow allows the nurse to determine how much fluid is actually draining from the peritoneal cavity.

🧿 The nurse should compare the amount drained with the amount of dialysate that was instilled during the exchange.

🧿 Reduced outflow can indicate catheter obstruction, catheter malposition, constipation, tubing kinks, or impaired drainage.

🧿 Accurate measurement helps identify fluid retention, which can occur when less dialysate returns than was infused.

🧿 The nurse should also observe the drained solution for color, clarity, blood, fibrin, or cloudiness.

🧿 Cloudy dialysate is particularly concerning because it can indicate peritonitis and requires prompt evaluation.

🧿 Intake and output measurements are essential for evaluating the effectiveness of peritoneal dialysis and fluid balance.

🧿 Therefore, measuring the amount of dialysate outflow is an appropriate nursing action when the drainage rate decreases.

✅ Monitor the access site for drainage — CORRECT

🧿 The nurse should assess the peritoneal dialysis catheter exit site whenever drainage problems occur.

🧿 Drainage around the catheter can indicate dialysate leakage, infection, or problems with catheter integrity.

🧿 The nurse should assess for additional findings such as redness, swelling, warmth, tenderness, or purulent drainage.

🧿 Infection at the catheter site can progress and potentially contribute to serious complications such as peritonitis.

🧿 Dialysate leaking around the catheter can also help explain why the expected amount of fluid is not appearing in the drainage bag.

🧿 The dressing and surrounding skin should be evaluated according to the prescribed peritoneal dialysis protocol.

🧿 Any abnormal drainage or evidence of infection should be documented and reported for prompt evaluation and treatment.

🧿 Therefore, monitoring the catheter access site is appropriate when decreased dialysate flow is identified.

✅ Reposition the client onto the other side — CORRECT

🧿 Repositioning is one of the first interventions for decreased peritoneal dialysis outflow because the catheter tip can become temporarily obstructed by internal structures.

🧿 The catheter may rest against the omentum or abdominal tissue, preventing dialysate from draining freely.

🧿 Turning the client can change the catheter's position and allow the solution to resume flowing.

🧿 Repositioning can also redistribute dialysate within the peritoneal cavity, promoting more effective drainage.

🧿 The nurse may have the client turn from side to side while monitoring the drainage.

🧿 The nurse should also inspect the tubing for kinks, clamps, compression, or other mechanical obstruction.

🧿 Persistent drainage problems after repositioning require further assessment for causes such as constipation, catheter migration, or obstruction by fibrin.

🧿 Therefore, turning the client onto the other side is an appropriate noninvasive intervention for decreased dialysate flow.

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RN Adult Medical Surgical 2023 (July 2026)

No.

1 :
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic UTIs. The client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin 250 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

2 :
A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of flushing their IV site before and after medication administration. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

3 :
A nurse is teaching a group of young adult clients about risk factors for hearing loss. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

✅ Use of a loop diuretic — RISK FACTOR

✅ Chronic infections of the middle ear — RISK FACTOR

✅ Perforation of the eardrum — RISK FACTOR

4 :
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain and has a respiratory rate of 8/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

5 :
A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a long-term central venous access device. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

✅ “Refrain from wearing any type of artificial nails.” — CORRECT

6 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has partial hearing loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take when communicating with the client?

7 :
A nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of respiratory failure?

✅ Agitation — CORRECT

8 :
A nurse is caring for a client who uses massage to alleviate pain. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for using this type of complementary therapy?

✅ Hemophilia — CORRECT

9 :
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for sumatriptan to treat migraine headaches. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication for taking this medication?

10 :
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis and notes a decrease in the dialysate flow rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

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RN Adult Medical Surgical 2023 (July 2026)

No.

1 : A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic UTIs. The client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin 250 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

2 : A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of flushing their IV site before and after medication administration. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

3 : A nurse is teaching a group of young adult clients about risk factors for hearing loss. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

✅ Use of a loop diuretic — RISK FACTOR

✅ Chronic infections of the middle ear — RISK FACTOR

✅ Perforation of the eardrum — RISK FACTOR

4 : A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain and has a respiratory rate of 8/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

5 : A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a long-term central venous access device. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

✅ “Refrain from wearing any type of artificial nails.” — CORRECT

6 : A nurse is caring for a client who has partial hearing loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take when communicating with the client?

7 : A nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of respiratory failure?

✅ Agitation — CORRECT

8 : A nurse is caring for a client who uses massage to alleviate pain. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for using this type of complementary therapy?

✅ Hemophilia — CORRECT

9 : A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for sumatriptan to treat migraine headaches. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication for taking this medication?

10 : A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis and notes a decrease in the dialysate flow rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

1 :
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has chronic UTIs. The client has a prescription for ciprofloxacin 250 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

2 :
A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of flushing their IV site before and after medication administration. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

3 :
A nurse is teaching a group of young adult clients about risk factors for hearing loss. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

4 :
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain and has a respiratory rate of 8/min and a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

5 :
A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a long-term central venous access device. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

6 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has partial hearing loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take when communicating with the client?

7 :
A nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of respiratory failure?

8 :
A nurse is caring for a client who uses massage to alleviate pain. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for using this type of complementary therapy?

9 :
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for sumatriptan to treat migraine headaches. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a contraindication for taking this medication?

10 :
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving peritoneal dialysis and notes a decrease in the dialysate flow rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)