1 :

Hint : 🧂 Iodine links thyroid.

Correct Answers:

  • Iodine


Rationale :

🦋 A thyroid scan commonly uses a radioactive iodine tracer to evaluate thyroid structure and function.

🦋 A client with an iodine allergy should be identified before the scan because iodine-containing substances may create a safety concern.

🦋 Graves’ disease causes increased thyroid activity, and the scan helps evaluate how strongly the thyroid takes up the tracer.

🦋 The nurse should report the iodine allergy to the provider or radiology/nuclear medicine team before the procedure.

🦋 This allergy is the most relevant contraindication among the listed options.

Eggs

🦋An egg allergy is more relevant to some vaccines or egg-derived products.

🦋It is not the key allergy associated with a thyroid scan.

Latex

🦋A latex allergy requires latex-free equipment and precautions during care.

🦋It is not the main contraindication for a thyroid scan tracer.

Peanuts

🦋A peanut allergy is important to document for general safety.

🦋It is not specifically related to thyroid scanning or radioactive iodine use.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

2 :

1200:

Temperature 39° C (102.2° F)

Heart rate 110/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 96% on room air

Combined tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (TDaP) vaccine, one dose administered at age 11 years.

Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine, two doses administered at age 12 years.

Meningococcal conjugate (MenACWY) vaccine, one dose administered at age 11 years.

1200:

Adolescent reports headache and neck pain. Lights off in exam room due to photophobia. Adolescent has had three episodes of vomiting. Purpura noted on bilateral lower extremities.

Kernig and Brudzinski signs positive.


Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the adolescent is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the adolescent's progress.


Hint : 🧠 Fever + stiff neck + purpura.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Bacterial meningitis
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: Anticipate a prescription for an antiviral medication and Anticipate a prescription for an electroencephalogram.
  • Blank 3 Correct Option: Neurological assessment and Hydration status.

Rationale :

Condition-Bacterial meningitis

🟣 Bacterial meningitis is most likely because the adolescent has fever, severe headache, neck pain, photophobia, vomiting, purpura, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs.

🟣 These findings strongly indicate meningeal irritation with systemic infection.

🟣 Purpura on the lower extremities is especially concerning for meningococcal meningitis, which can progress rapidly to sepsis and shock.

🟣 The adolescent received only one MenACWY dose at age 11, and a booster is recommended at age 16, so protection may be incomplete.

🟣 This is an emergency condition requiring rapid isolation, antibiotic therapy, and close neurologic monitoring.

Actions

Initiate respiratory isolation

🟣 The nurse should initiate droplet/respiratory isolation because suspected meningococcal meningitis spreads through respiratory droplets.

🟣 Isolation helps protect staff, visitors, and other clients from exposure.

🟣 The client should remain on droplet precautions until appropriate antibiotic therapy has been given for the recommended period.

🟣 This action is urgent because meningococcal infection can spread quickly in close-contact settings.

🟣 Early isolation is part of immediate safety management in the emergency department.

Administer an antibiotic

🟣 Antibiotics are the priority treatment for suspected bacterial meningitis.

🟣 Therapy should be started promptly after cultures are obtained if possible, but treatment should not be delayed in an unstable or highly suspicious case.

🟣 Early antibiotics reduce the risk of brain injury, hearing loss, seizures, septic shock, and death.

🟣 Meningococcal meningitis can progress very quickly, making rapid antimicrobial therapy lifesaving.

🟣 The nurse should prepare to administer prescribed broad-spectrum IV antibiotics immediately.

Parameters

Neurological assessment

🟣 A neurological assessment is essential because bacterial meningitis can cause increased intracranial pressure, seizures, altered level of consciousness, and coma.

🟣 The nurse should monitor level of consciousness, pupil response, headache severity, behavior changes, and seizure activity.

🟣 Worsening neurologic findings may indicate progression of infection or cerebral edema.

🟣 Frequent neuro checks help evaluate whether treatment is improving or whether complications are developing.

🟣 This is one of the most important ways to assess progress in meningitis.

Hydration status

🟣 Hydration status should be monitored because vomiting, fever, and poor intake increase the risk for dehydration.

🟣 Fever also raises fluid requirements and can worsen fluid loss.

🟣 The nurse should monitor intake and output, mucous membranes, urine output, daily weight, and IV fluid response.

🟣 Maintaining hydration supports circulation and helps prevent complications such as hypotension and poor tissue perfusion.

🟣 Hydration monitoring is important while the client receives antibiotics and supportive care.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

3 :

Hint : 🤰Long contraction = fetal risk.

Correct Answers:

  • Uterine contractions lasting 90 seconds


Rationale :

🔷 Uterine contractions lasting 90 seconds indicate uterine tachysystole/hyperstimulation, which is an adverse effect of oxytocin infusion.

🔷 Oxytocin stimulates uterine smooth muscle, and excessive stimulation can reduce uteroplacental blood flow.

🔷 Prolonged contractions can decrease fetal oxygenation because the uterus does not relax long enough between contractions.

🔷 The nurse should recognize this finding as unsafe and prepare to stop or reduce the oxytocin infusion according to facility protocol.

🔷 The client should also be repositioned, IV fluids increased as prescribed, and the fetal heart rate monitored closely for signs of distress.

Moderate variability of the FHR

🔷 Moderate variability is a reassuring fetal heart rate finding.

🔷 It usually indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and an intact fetal nervous system.

Uterine contractions every 2 min

🔷 Contractions every 2 min can be acceptable during labor if they are not too long or too strong.

🔷 The concerning finding is a contraction lasting 90 seconds, because prolonged contraction time can impair fetal oxygenation.

FHR 150/min

🔷 A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160/min.

🔷 This finding does not indicate an adverse effect of oxytocin.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

4 :

Hint : 💉 Write route and time clearly.

Correct Answers:

  • Enoxaparin 30 mg subcut every 12 hr


Rationale :

🟢 Enoxaparin 30 mg subcut every 12 hr is the safest documentation because it uses the correct dose, route, and frequency.

🟢 The abbreviation mg correctly represents milligrams, which matches the prescribed dose.

🟢 The route is written as subcut, which is safer than using error-prone abbreviations such as SQ or SC.

🟢 The frequency every 12 hr is clear and avoids unsafe shorthand.

🟢 Accurate transcription is essential because enoxaparin is an anticoagulant, and documentation errors can increase the risk of bleeding or underdosing.

Enoxaparin 30 mg SQ q AM and q HS

🟢 SQ and q are unsafe abbreviations and should be avoided in medication documentation.

🟢 “q AM and q HS” does not accurately match the prescription of every 12 hr.

Enoxaparin 30 mcg SC q12 hour

🟢 mcg is incorrect because the prescription is for 30 mg, not micrograms.

🟢 SC and q12 are also unsafe abbreviations, making this transcription unsafe.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

5 :

1000:

Client is 75 years old. Transported to ED via ambulance. Client reports "severe" difficulty breathing that suddenly began this morning. Unable to "catch breath." Client reports productive cough and chest tightness.

No known allergies. Client reports medical history of heart failure, bronchitis, and diabetes.

Reports no surgical history.

Client is lethargic, orientated to person and place only. Follows simple commands. Anxious and restless.

Client dyspneic at rest. Using accessory muscles. Coarse crackles lower bases bilaterally. Trachea midline. Equal chest expansion. S1 S2 present, no murmurs. All extremities cool to touch and clammy. Pitting pedal edema +2 and pedal pulses +1 bilaterally. Jugular vein distension present.

1010:
Temperature 37.2° C (99° F)
Heart rate 118/min
Respiratory rate 30/min
Blood pressure 156/88 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 87% on oxygen at 10 L nonrebreather
Pain level 0 on a scale of 0 to 10

1010:

Arterial Blood Gas

pH 7.33 (7.35 to 7.45)

PaCO2 55 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg)

PaO2 65 mm Hg (80 to 100 mm Hg)

HCO3 24 mEq/L (21 to 28 mEq/L)


Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.


Hint : 🫁 CHF + crackles + JVD.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Pulmonary edema
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and Administer an IV diuretic.
  • Blank 3 Correct Option: Frothy, pink-tinted sputum and Urinary output.

Rationale :

Condition: Pulmonary edema

🔵 Pulmonary edema is most likely because the client has heart failure history, severe sudden dyspnea, crackles, jugular vein distension, pitting edema, tachycardia, and hypoxemia.

🔵 These findings indicate fluid overload backing up into the lungs, which interferes with oxygen exchange.

🔵 The oxygen saturation of 87% despite 10 L via nonrebreather shows severe respiratory compromise.

🔵 The ABG shows respiratory acidosis with low pH, high PaCO₂, and low PaO₂, meaning the client is not ventilating or oxygenating effectively.

🔵 Cool clammy extremities, restlessness, and lethargy suggest poor perfusion and worsening oxygen deprivation.

Actions

Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

🔵 Sublingual nitroglycerin helps reduce preload by causing venous dilation.

🔵 Lowering preload decreases the amount of blood returning to the heart, reducing pulmonary congestion.

🔵 This helps relieve chest tightness, dyspnea, and fluid pressure in the lungs.

🔵 Nitroglycerin is commonly used in acute pulmonary edema when blood pressure is adequate, and this client’s blood pressure is 156/88 mm Hg.

🔵 The nurse should monitor blood pressure closely because nitroglycerin can cause hypotension.

Administer an IV diuretic

🔵 An IV diuretic, such as furosemide, is a priority medication for pulmonary edema related to heart failure.

🔵 It removes excess fluid through the kidneys and decreases intravascular volume.

🔵 Reducing fluid volume helps decrease pulmonary congestion and improves oxygenation.

🔵 IV administration is preferred in an emergency because it works faster than oral therapy.

🔵 The nurse should monitor urine output, blood pressure, electrolytes, and respiratory status after administration.

Parameters

Frothy, pink-tinted sputum

🔵 Frothy, pink-tinted sputum is a classic sign of worsening pulmonary edema.

🔵 It occurs when fluid and small amounts of blood leak into the alveoli.

🔵 Monitoring sputum helps determine whether pulmonary fluid accumulation is improving or worsening.

🔵 A decrease in frothy sputum suggests better alveolar gas exchange and reduced congestion.

🔵 Increasing frothy sputum requires urgent reassessment and rapid provider notification.

Urinary output

🔵 Urinary output is important because the client is expected to receive an IV diuretic.

🔵 Adequate urine output shows that the kidneys are responding and excess fluid is being removed.

🔵 Monitoring output helps evaluate whether treatment is reducing fluid overload.

🔵 Low urine output may indicate poor renal perfusion, worsening heart failure, or ineffective diuresis.

🔵 The nurse should also assess daily weight and lung sounds to evaluate fluid status.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

6 :

1000:

Client in active labor. Sterile vaginal examination, 3 cm dilated, 80% dilated, -2 station. Fetal heart rate 130 with moderate variability. Uterine contractions every 2 min, 80 seconds duration, 2+ palpation. Client reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Client requests an epidural. Anesthesiology at bedside to initiate epidural placement.

1030:

Fetal heart rate 140, minimal variability, recurring late decelerations noted.

1000:

Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)

Blood pressure 149/87 mm Hg

Heart rate 101/min

Respiratory rate 21/min

Oxygen saturation 98% on room air

1015:

Blood pressure 119/75 mm Hg

Heart rate 90/min

Respiratory rate 16/min

Oxygen saturation 98% on room air


Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The nurse should and .


Hint : 👶Late decels = reposition + oxygen.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: place the client in lateral position
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: apply oxygen via face mask at 10 L/min

Rationale :

Place the client in lateral position

🟣 Place the client in a lateral position because the fetal tracing shows minimal variability with recurring late decelerations, which indicates uteroplacental insufficiency.

🟣 Late decelerations occur when the fetus is not receiving enough oxygen during contractions.

🟣 Repositioning the client to the side improves maternal venous return, increases uterine blood flow, and helps improve fetal oxygenation.

🟣 This is especially important after epidural placement because the client’s blood pressure dropped from 149/87 to 119/75, which can reduce placental perfusion.

🟣 Lateral positioning is a priority intrauterine resuscitation intervention for a nonreassuring fetal heart rate pattern.

Apply oxygen via face mask at 10 L/min

🟣 Apply oxygen via face mask at 10 L/min to increase maternal oxygen delivery and support fetal oxygenation during late decelerations.

🟣 Recurring late decelerations with minimal variability suggest the fetus may be experiencing hypoxia.

🟣 Oxygen by face mask provides a higher oxygen concentration than room air and is used during intrauterine resuscitation.

🟣 This action is appropriate while the nurse continues fetal monitoring and prepares to notify the provider.

🟣 Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen transfer across the placenta until the fetal heart rate pattern stabilizes.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

7 :

Hint : 📝 Chart facts, not judgment.

Correct Answers:

  • "The client was administered 4 units of regular insulin."


Rationale :

🔷 “The client was administered 4 units of regular insulin” is correct because it is objective, factual, clear, and medication-specific.

🔷 Proper documentation should include what was given, the dose, and the medication name without judgmental wording.

🔷 This entry avoids blaming, vague descriptions, or incident-report language in the client’s medical record.

🔷 The medical record is a legal document, so entries must be accurate, concise, timely, and based on observed facts.

🔷 Clear medication documentation supports continuity of care and reduces the risk of duplicate dosing or medication errors.

“The client is uncooperative and refused to take their morning medication.”

🔷 The word uncooperative is judgmental and should not be used in objective nursing documentation.

🔷 A better entry would describe the client’s exact behavior or quote the client’s refusal.

“A 2 centimeter by 2 centimeter amount of purulent drainage was noted during a dressing change.”

🔷 This documentation is unclear because drainage should be described by amount, color, odor, and consistency, not as “2 cm by 2 cm amount.”

🔷 The measurement may describe the wound or drainage area, but it does not accurately quantify the drainage.

“A medication error was made on a previous shift. The client’s vital signs are stable.”

🔷 Medication errors should be reported through the facility’s incident reporting system, not documented as blame in the client’s chart.

🔷 The medical record should include the client’s assessment findings and interventions without referencing an incident report or assigning fault.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

8 :

Hint : 💧Excess fluid dilutes urine.

Correct Answers:

  • Urine specific gravity 1.001 (1.005 to 1.03)


Rationale :

🟢 Urine specific gravity 1.001 indicates very dilute urine, which can occur with hypervolemia because excess fluid lowers urine concentration.

🟢 Specific gravity measures the concentration of particles in urine, and a low value suggests increased fluid volume or reduced concentrating ability.

🟢 In fluid volume excess, the kidneys may excrete more water, producing urine with a low specific gravity.

🟢 The normal range is approximately 1.005 to 1.030, so 1.001 is below the expected range.

🟢 This finding supports fluid overload more than the other listed laboratory values.

Serum calcium 10 mg/dL

🟢 A serum calcium of 10 mg/dL is within the expected range of 9 to 10.5 mg/dL.

🟢 This value does not indicate hypervolemia.

Serum sodium 138 mEq/L

🟢 A serum sodium of 138 mEq/L is within the expected range of 136 to 145 mEq/L.

🟢 Although dilutional hyponatremia can occur with fluid overload, this sodium level is normal.

Urine pH 6

🟢 A urine pH of 6 is within the normal range of 4.6 to 8.

🟢 Urine pH reflects urine acidity or alkalinity, not fluid volume status.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

9 :

Hint : 💉 Unwanted touch = battery.

Correct Answers:

  • Battery


Rationale :

⚖️ Battery occurs when the nurse performs intentional physical contact without the client’s consent.

⚖️ The client clearly refused the injection by stating, “I don’t want that injection.”

⚖️ Giving the injection anyway violates the client’s right to autonomy and bodily control.

⚖️ In nursing, even a prescribed treatment can become battery if it is performed after a competent client refuses it.

⚖️ The nurse should have stopped, assessed the client’s concern, provided teaching, and notified the provider if needed.

Assault

⚖️ Assault is a threat or attempt to touch a client without consent.

⚖️ In this case, the injection was actually given, so the act became battery.

Coercion

⚖️ Coercion involves forcing or pressuring a client to make a decision through threats, intimidation, or manipulation.

⚖️ The issue here is not persuasion; it is actual unwanted physical contact.

A breach of duty

⚖️ A breach of duty occurs when a nurse fails to meet the expected standard of care.

⚖️ Although the nurse acted improperly, the specific legal tort committed by giving an unwanted injection is battery.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

10 :

Hint : 🧑‍⚕️ Float nurse = stable client.

Correct Answers:

  • A client who is 2 days postoperative following a colon resection.


Rationale :

🔷 A client who is 2 days postoperative following a colon resection is the most appropriate assignment for a float nurse from the postpartum unit.

🔷 This client is likely stable enough for routine postoperative nursing care such as vital signs, pain control, incision assessment, mobility support, intake and output, and bowel function monitoring.

🔷 A postpartum nurse has general nursing skills that can transfer well to caring for a stable postoperative client.

🔷 Float nurses should be assigned clients with stable conditions and predictable outcomes.

🔷 The nurse manager should avoid assigning the float nurse clients who require specialized precautions, complex neurologic assessment, or high-risk urologic postoperative monitoring.

A client who has tuberculosis and is on airborne precautions

🔷 A client with tuberculosis requires strict airborne precautions, including appropriate room placement and fit-tested N95 respirator use.

🔷 This assignment is less appropriate for a postpartum float nurse because it requires infection-control practices that may be less familiar in that specialty area.

A client who has a head injury and requires neurological checks every 4hr

🔷 A client with a head injury requires accurate and ongoing neurological assessment.

🔷 This is not the best assignment for a float nurse because subtle neurological changes can indicate serious deterioration.

A client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate

🔷 A client who is 1 day postoperative following TURP requires close monitoring for bleeding, urinary obstruction, bladder spasms, and complications related to continuous bladder irrigation.

🔷 This care is more specialized and less predictable than routine postoperative colon resection care.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Total Questions: 10

Choose Different Exam !