1 :

1100:

Client transferred from PACU following surgery.

1200:

Client reports sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath during rest. Pain is 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 and not relieved with rest. Also reports indigestion and nausea. Skin is pale and cool. Client appears restless and anxious. Respirations fast, labored. Heart rate irregular, fast with S3 present. Indwelling urinary catheter output 1 20 mL of dark yellow urine.

1205:

3 L supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula applied. Provider notified.

1100:

Temperature 37°C (98.7°F)

Heart rate 94/min

Blood pressure 128/81 mm Hg

Respiratory rate 20/min

Pulse oximetry 95% on 1 L via nasal cannula

 

Temperature 37°C (98.7°F)

Heart rate 111/min

Blood pressure 152/100 mm Hg

Respiratory rate 26/min

Pulse oximetry 90% on 1 L via nasal cannula


Select the five findings the nurse should report to the provider immediately.


Answer Options

Hint : 🫁Sudden chest pain + dyspnea = report cardiopulmonary changes first.

Correct Answers:

  • Oxygen saturation
  • Respiratory findings
  • Neurologic findings
  • Blood pressure
  • Heart rate


Rationale :

Oxygen saturation

🔵 The client’s oxygen saturation dropped from 95% to 90% despite postoperative oxygen support, which indicates worsening oxygenation.

🔵 A sudden decline in oxygen saturation after hip arthroplasty raises concern for a serious complication such as pulmonary embolism, myocardial ischemia, or acute cardiopulmonary compromise.

🔵 This finding is especially urgent because it is occurring with chest pain, shortness of breath, pallor, and labored respirations.

🔵 In a postoperative client, reduced oxygen saturation can reflect impaired gas exchange and requires rapid provider awareness and intervention.

🔵 The nurse should report oxygen saturation immediately because it is a key sign of acute deterioration.

Respiratory findings

🔵 The client has sudden shortness of breath, fast labored respirations, and severe chest pain at rest, which are signs of acute respiratory and cardiovascular instability.

🔵 These symptoms are not expected after routine recovery from surgery and may indicate a life-threatening complication.

🔵 Postoperative orthopedic clients are at increased risk for venous thromboembolism and pulmonary embolism, making these respiratory changes especially significant.

🔵 Labored breathing also increases the client’s oxygen demand and may worsen tissue hypoxia if not addressed rapidly.

🔵 The nurse should report these respiratory findings immediately because they signal urgent cardiopulmonary compromise.

Neurologic findings

🔵 The client appears restless and anxious, which can be early neurologic signs of hypoxia or decreased cardiac output.

🔵 Sudden changes in behavior or mental status should never be ignored in a postoperative client with chest pain and dyspnea.

🔵 Restlessness often develops when the brain is not receiving adequate oxygen, even before more obvious neurologic decline occurs.

🔵 In this situation, the neurologic change is occurring together with multiple signs of acute instability, increasing its clinical importance.

🔵 The nurse should report these neurologic findings immediately because they may reflect worsening oxygen deprivation.

Blood pressure

🔵 The client’s blood pressure increased from 128/81 mm Hg to 152/100 mm Hg, which is a significant postoperative change.

🔵 An elevated blood pressure in the setting of chest pain, dyspnea, anxiety, and tachycardia may reflect acute physiologic stress or cardiac compromise.

🔵 Hypertension during an acute event may occur as a compensatory response to pain, reduced oxygenation, or circulatory strain.

🔵 Trending vital sign changes is important because worsening instability can quickly progress to hemodynamic collapse.

🔵 The nurse should report the blood pressure change immediately because it contributes to the overall picture of acute deterioration.

Heart rate

🔵 The client’s heart rate increased from 94/min to 111/min and is described as irregular and fast, which is highly concerning.

🔵 An irregular tachycardic rhythm with an S3 heart sound suggests possible acute cardiac dysfunction or strain.

🔵 Tachycardia is a common response to hypoxia, pain, pulmonary embolism, or myocardial ischemia, all of which are urgent postoperative concerns.

🔵 Cardiac rhythm abnormalities can decrease effective perfusion and rapidly worsen the client’s condition if not treated promptly.

🔵 The nurse should report the heart rate immediately because it indicates significant cardiopulmonary Temperature

🔵 The client’s temperature remained unchanged at 37°C (98.7°F), so it does not indicate acute deterioration at this time.

🔵 Compared with the major cardiopulmonary changes present, temperature is not one of the immediate priority findings to report.

Urinary output

🔵 The urinary catheter output is documented as 120 mL, which is not low enough by itself to be the most urgent reportable finding in this scenario.

🔵 Although the urine is dark yellow and hydration status should still be monitored, the more immediate threats are the client’s respiratory and cardiovascular changes.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

2 :

0800:

Client is brought to the emergency department by their partner, who reports changes in the client's alertness and mood over the last few days. The client appears unkempt and lethargic.

1200:

The client is transferred to a medical intensive care unit (ICU) for further monitoring. The client is awake and oriented to person and place. Client is lethargic.

Liver failure

Alcoholism

1000:

Electroencephalography shows generalized slowing.

1100:

Lactulose 20 g PO daily.

Hand tremors

Lethargic but follows simple commands

1 + pitting edema to both ankles


Complete the following sentence by using the list of options. The client is at highest risk for developing as evidenced by the client's .


Hint : 🧠Liver failure + lethargy = encephalopathy.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: hepatic encephalopathy
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: neurologic assessment

Rationale :

hepatic encephalopathy

🟣 The client has a history of liver failure and alcoholism, both of which place the client at high risk for hepatic encephalopathy.

🟣 The findings of changes in alertness and mood, lethargy, and hand tremors are classic neurologic signs associated with worsening liver-related toxin buildup, especially ammonia.

🟣 The use of lactulose also strongly supports this concern because lactulose is commonly given to reduce ammonia absorption in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

🟣 In addition, the electroencephalography showing generalized slowing is consistent with impaired cerebral function.

🟣 These data make hepatic encephalopathy the highest-priority risk in this client.

neurologic assessment

🟣 The client’s neurologic assessment provides the strongest evidence supporting hepatic encephalopathy.

🟣 Important clues include lethargy, altered mental status, mood changes, and the ability to follow only simple commands, which all indicate impaired brain function.

🟣 Hepatic encephalopathy is primarily identified through changes in level of consciousness, cognition, and neuromuscular status.

🟣 The documented hand tremors and EEG slowing further support neurologic involvement rather than a purely nutritional or skin problem.

🟣 For that reason, the best evidence in blank 2 is the client’s neurologic assessment.


Distractor Analysis :

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3 :

Today, 0700:

Client presents to the emergency department with adult child who reports a change in the client's mental status. Client has a history of stage 4 lung cancer and is taking oral chemotherapy.

0730:

Child calls nurse to the room. Client is restless and agitated, skin feels cool and clammy. Client gagged and had a small amount of clear, yellow emesis. Provider notified.

Today, 0700:

Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)

Heart rate 116/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Blood pressure 102/68 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 92% 4 L O2 via nasal cannula

0730:

Temperature 38.3°C (101°F)

Heart rate 118/min

Respiratory rate 24/min

Blood pressure 96/58 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 89% 6 L O2 via simple face mask


Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.


Answer Options

Hint : 🦠Fever + hypotension + agitation = think sepsis bundle.

Correct Answers:

  • Obtain blood cultures.
  • Obtain a serum lactate level.
  • Administer an antibiotic.
  • Infuse intravenous (IV) fluids.


Rationale :

Obtain blood cultures.

🔶 This client is showing signs of possible sepsis, including fever, tachycardia, hypotension, worsening oxygenation, restlessness, and agitation.

🔶 The client also has stage 4 lung cancer and is taking oral chemotherapy, which increases the risk for infection and impaired immune response.

🔶 Blood cultures are an important part of the sepsis workup because they help identify the causative organism.

🔶 Cultures should ideally be obtained before antibiotics are started so the organism can be identified accurately.

🔶 The nurse should anticipate an order to obtain blood cultures because rapid diagnosis and targeted treatment are essential in suspected sepsis.

Obtain a serum lactate level.

🔶 A serum lactate level is commonly ordered when sepsis is suspected because it helps assess tissue hypoperfusion.

🔶 This client has hypotension, tachycardia, and altered mental status, which may indicate poor perfusion and early septic shock.

🔶 Elevated lactate levels suggest that tissues are not receiving enough oxygen at the cellular level.

🔶 Measuring lactate helps determine illness severity and guides the urgency of treatment.

🔶 The nurse should anticipate a prescription for a serum lactate level because it is a key marker in sepsis evaluation.

Administer an antibiotic.

🔶 This client has findings strongly concerning for infection progressing to sepsis, so early antibiotic therapy is a priority.

🔶 Timely administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics can reduce progression to septic shock and improve outcomes.

🔶 The presence of fever, worsening vital signs, and an immunocompromised condition supports the need for rapid antimicrobial treatment.

🔶 Antibiotics are a standard part of early sepsis management once cultures are obtained or while the workup is underway.

🔶 The nurse should anticipate an order to administer an antibiotic because infection control is essential in this client’s stabilization.

Infuse intravenous (IV) fluids.

🔶 The client’s blood pressure dropped from 102/68 mm Hg to 96/58 mm Hg, which suggests worsening circulatory compromise.

🔶 In suspected sepsis, IV fluids are given to improve intravascular volume, tissue perfusion, and blood pressure.

🔶 This client is also restless, clammy, tachycardic, and hypoxic, all of which support concern for systemic deterioration.

🔶 Oral intake is not appropriate in an unstable client who has had emesis and altered mental status.

🔶 The nurse should anticipate an order to infuse IV fluids as part of urgent sepsis management.

Increase intake of oral fluids.

🔶 This client is acutely ill, restless, and has already had emesis, so encouraging oral fluids is not the safest or most effective intervention.

🔶 In suspected sepsis with hypotension, the priority is intravenous fluid resuscitation, not oral hydration.

Administer a dose of aspirin.

🔶 Aspirin is not a priority treatment for suspected sepsis in this situation.

🔶 The urgent needs are infection management, perfusion support, and diagnostic evaluation rather than antipyretic or antiplatelet therapy.

Monitor serum glucose level.

🔶 Serum glucose may be monitored in critically ill clients, but it is not one of the most immediate anticipated prescriptions based on the data provided.

🔶 The priority orders are those that address suspected sepsis, including cultures, lactate, antibiotics, and IV fluids.


Distractor Analysis :

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4 :

2200:

The client was brought to the ED via ambulance after a high-impact motor vehicle crash less than 1 hr ago. The client is alert and reports a headache due to "slamming" their head forward into the car's dashboard. The client reports not remembering what happened and is unsure why they’re in the hospital. The emergency rescue personnel report the client has been conscious during their care. No facial bruising noted. No drainage from nose or ears.

0100:

The client appears lethargic and oriented to person only. The client reports a headache.

2200:

Glasgow coma scale (GCS):

Eye-opening response 4

Best verbal response 4

Best motor response 6

Total score 14

0100:

Glasgow coma scale (GCS):

Eye-opening response 3

Best verbal response 3

Best motor response 5

Total score 11

2200:

Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)

Heart rate 77/min

Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg

Respiratory rate 14/min

Pulse oximetry 98% on room air

0100:

Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)

Heart rate 55/min

Blood pressure 160/50 mm Hg

Respiratory rate 20/min

Pulse oximetry 94% on room air


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The nurse suspects the client has related to .


Hint : 🧠Falling GCS + bradycardia + widening pulse pressure = ICP.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: increased intracranial pressure
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: decreased level of consciousness

Rationale :

increased intracranial pressure

🔵 This client is showing classic signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) after a head injury, including a worsening level of consciousness, declining Glasgow Coma Scale score from 14 to 11, bradycardia, and a widening pulse pressure with blood pressure rising from 100/60 to 160/50 mm Hg.

🔵 These changes are highly concerning for Cushing’s response, which is associated with rising pressure inside the skull.

🔵 The client was initially alert but later became lethargic and oriented only to person, which indicates neurologic deterioration rather than improvement.

🔵 The worsening headache also supports the possibility of increasing pressure within the cranial vault following trauma.

🔵 For these reasons, increased intracranial pressure is the most likely condition the nurse should suspect.

decreased level of consciousness

🔵 The strongest evidence supporting increased intracranial pressure is the client’s decreased level of consciousness.

🔵 The client progressed from being alert with mild confusion to becoming lethargic and oriented only to person, showing a clear neurologic decline.

🔵 The drop in GCS confirms worsening cerebral function and is one of the most important indicators of serious intracranial change.

🔵 In head injury clients, changes in consciousness are among the earliest and most significant signs of neurologic deterioration.

🔵 This makes decreased level of consciousness the best completion for the second blank.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

5 :

0900:

The staff is notified that there has been a bomb explosion a few streets away from the hospital. The hospital's emergency operations plan (EOP) is initiated.

0930:

The following clients arrive to the hospital via emergency medical services:

Client 1: Noted to have a closed leg injury, splint in place. Client reports pain as 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Yellow tag on foot.

Client 2: Noted to have a sucking left-sided chest wound with a blood pressure of 80/52 mm Hg. Red tag on foot.

Client 3: Noted to have small lacerations to the scalp and arms. Bruising to the arms and legs. Green tag on foot.

 

Client 2: Noted to have a sucking left-sided chest wound with a blood pressure of 80/52 mm Hg. Red tag on foot.

Client 3: Noted to have small lacerations to the scalp and arms. Bruising to the arms and legs. Green tag on foot.

Client 4: Noted to have a penetrating head wound, nonresponsive. Burns to 60% of the body. Black tag on foot.


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client with the highest priority of care is due to the client's .


Hint : 🫁Red tag + chest wound = treat first.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: client 2
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: life-threatening but survivable injuries

Rationale :

client 2

🚨 Client 2 has a sucking chest wound and a blood pressure of 80/52 mm Hg, which indicates a severe and potentially life-threatening thoracic injury.

🚨 In disaster triage, a red tag identifies clients who need immediate treatment because their condition is critical but potentially survivable with rapid intervention.

🚨 A sucking chest wound can quickly impair ventilation and oxygenation and may lead to tension pneumothorax, shock, or respiratory failure if not treated promptly.

🚨 The client’s hypotension shows hemodynamic instability, making this an urgent priority over injuries that are delayed, minor, or non-survivable.

🚨 For these reasons, client 2 is the highest priority for care in this mass-casualty situation.

life-threatening but survivable injuries

🚨 In mass-casualty triage, immediate priority is given to clients with life-threatening but survivable injuries.

🚨 This category includes clients who require rapid intervention to preserve life, such as those with airway compromise, major bleeding, or serious chest trauma.

🚨 Client 2’s sucking chest wound and low blood pressure fit this category because prompt treatment can significantly improve survival.

🚨 The goal in disaster triage is to use limited resources where they will save the greatest number of lives.

🚨 That is why life-threatening but survivable injuries is the correct reason for assigning the highest priority to client 2.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

6 :

0900:

Client is a 75-year-old female being treated for sepsis from a urinary tract infection; client lethargic, receiving intravenous fluids and antibiotics as prescribed.

0950:

Client had a 250 mL frank blood emesis; blood specimens sent as prescribed.

0900:

Neurologic: lethargic

Integumentary: extremities cool and clammy

Cardiovascular: apical 104/min and regular; capillary refill 3 seconds

Hip replacement S years ago

Hypertension x 10 years

Treated for acute alcohol intoxication at age 50

0950:

Neurologic: restless, confused

Integumentary: small petechiae over lower arms; bleeding from previous intravenous site

Respiratory: breath sounds high pitched over bilateral lung lobes

Cardiovascular: apical 114/min and regular; capillary refill 3 seconds

Gastrointestinal: abdomen firm and distended

0900:

Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F)

Heart rate 104/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Blood pressure 132/78 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 95% on 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula

0950:

Temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F)

Heart rate 114/min

Respiratory rate 24/min

Blood pressure 105/64 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 92% on 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula

1000:

Platelets 100,000/mm3 (150,000 to 400,000/mm3)

Prothrombin time 20 seconds (11 to 12.5 seconds)

Activated partial thromboplastin time 47 seconds (30 to 40 seconds)


Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.


Hint : 🩸Sepsis + petechiae + bleeding + prolonged PT/PTT = DIC.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: Administer heparin as prescribed
  • Blank 3 Correct Option: Bleeding from other sites

Rationale :

Condition-Disseminated intravascular coagulation

🔴 This client with sepsis is now showing classic findings of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), including petechiae, bleeding from a previous IV site, frank blood emesis, thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT, and prolonged aPTT.

🔴 DIC occurs when widespread clotting and consumption of clotting factors lead to both microvascular thrombosis and serious bleeding.

🔴 The client’s worsening confusion, hypotension, tachycardia, and falling oxygen saturation also suggest systemic deterioration related to poor perfusion.

🔴 Sepsis is one of the most common causes of acute DIC, making this diagnosis the best fit for the overall clinical picture.

🔴 For these reasons, disseminated intravascular coagulation is the condition the nurse should identify first.

Actions

Administer heparin as prescribed

🔴 In some cases of DIC, heparin may be prescribed to interrupt the abnormal clotting process and reduce ongoing consumption of clotting factors.

🔴 Heparin is considered when thrombosis and ongoing coagulation activation are major concerns, especially in the setting of sepsis-related DIC.

🔴 The nurse should administer it only if specifically prescribed and continue close monitoring for bleeding.

🔴 This option is the only listed action that directly corresponds to treatment of DIC.

🔴 Therefore, administering heparin as prescribed is the best matching action from the choices provided.

Parameter

Bleeding from other sites

🔴 Clients with DIC are at high risk for ongoing and widespread bleeding because clotting factors and platelets are being consumed rapidly.

🔴 The client is already bleeding from a previous IV site and has had hematemesis, so additional bleeding may develop elsewhere.

🔴 Monitoring for bleeding from gums, urine, stool, puncture sites, or mucous membranes helps the nurse evaluate progression of the disorder.

🔴 Ongoing assessment of bleeding is essential because severe hemorrhage can become life-threatening very quickly.

🔴 For this reason, bleeding from other sites is an important parameter to monitor.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

7 :

Hint : 📘Scope = state law.

Correct Answers:

  • The State Board of Nursing


Rationale :

🔷 The State Board of Nursing is the legal authority that defines and regulates the scope of practice for nurses within that specific state.

🔷 Questions about what tasks an LPN can or cannot perform should be answered by the state’s nursing practice act and the Board that enforces it.

🔷 Scope of practice can vary from one state to another, so the nurse needs the most state-specific regulatory source.

🔷 This makes the State Board of Nursing the most accurate resource for clarifying delegation and role responsibilities.

🔷 Consulting the State Board of Nursing helps ensure that client care assignments are both safe and legally appropriate.

The Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing

🔷 This organization focuses on nursing education program accreditation, not day-to-day legal scope of practice for licensed nurses.

🔷 It does not determine whether a specific clinical task is within an LPN’s role in a given state.

The American Nurses Association

🔷 The ANA provides professional standards, ethical guidance, and advocacy for nurses.

🔷 It is not the primary legal authority for determining a state-specific LPN scope of practice.

The National Council of State Boards of Nursing

🔷 The NCSBN supports boards of nursing and develops resources such as the NCLEX, but it does not replace the authority of the individual state board.

🔷 Scope-of-practice decisions are ultimately governed by the client’s state nursing laws and regulations.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

8 :

Hint : 💰Supplies are controllable.

Correct Answers:

  • Wound care supplies used fora client


Rationale :

🟢 A controllable expense is a cost that the nurse manager can influence through daily management decisions.

🟢 Wound care supplies are considered variable operating costs because their use can be monitored, adjusted, and managed on the unit.

🟢 The nurse manager can reduce waste, improve inventory control, and encourage cost-conscious use of supplies while still maintaining quality care.

🟢 This makes wound care supplies an example of an expense that is within managerial influence.

🟢 Therefore, wound care supplies used for a client are a controllable expense in a fiscal budget.

Overtime acquired due to an emergency

🟢 Emergency overtime may occur because of unexpected circumstances outside the manager’s routine control.

🟢 It is generally not considered as directly controllable as normal day-to-day supply use.

Number of staffing personnel on a shift

🟢 Staffing levels are often driven by census, acuity, policy, and required coverage rather than being a simple controllable supply-type expense.

🟢 While managers help plan staffing, this option is not the best example of a controllable operational expense compared with supply use.

Depreciation of equipment value

🟢 Depreciation is a fixed expense that occurs over time regardless of daily unit decisions.

🟢 The nurse manager cannot directly alter the rate of equipment depreciation through routine care planning.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

9 :

Hint : 🫁Keep lungs clear.

Correct Answers:

  • "Cough and deep breathe every 6 hours."


Rationale :

🟡 A client with HIV and a low white blood cell count is at increased risk for respiratory infections, including pneumonia.

🟡 Teaching the client to cough and deep breathe helps mobilize secretions, improve lung expansion, and reduce the risk of pulmonary infection.

🟡 This is a practical infection-prevention strategy that supports airway clearance and better oxygenation.

🟡 Preventing retained secretions is especially important in immunocompromised clients because infections can worsen quickly.

🟡 For this reason, the nurse should include the instruction to cough and deep breathe every 6 hours.

“You can reuse drinking cups for up to 1 hour.”

🟡 Reusing drinking cups increases the risk of contamination and bacterial growth.

🟡 Immunocompromised clients should use clean items to reduce infection risk.

“Check your temperature every 3 days to determine if you have a fever.”

🟡 A client at high risk for infection should monitor temperature more frequently than every 3 days.

🟡 Delayed fever recognition could postpone treatment of a serious infection.

“Soak your toothbrush in bleach before rinsing it with hot, running water every week.”

🟡 Bleach is not an appropriate routine method for toothbrush care and may be unsafe.

🟡 A clean toothbrush should be replaced regularly rather than treated with harsh chemicals.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

10 :

Hint : ❤️Beneficence = do good.

Correct Answers:

  • Identifying fall hazards in an older adult client's home


Rationale :

🔴 Beneficence means acting in ways that promote the client’s well-being and doing good for the client.

🔴 Identifying fall hazards in the home is a proactive action that protects the client from injury and promotes safety.

🔴 This reflects the nurse’s responsibility to prevent harm and improve the client’s health outcomes.

🔴 Beneficence goes beyond avoiding harm; it involves actively taking steps to support the client’s best interest.

🔴 Therefore, identifying fall hazards in an older adult client’s home is an example of beneficence.

“Honoring a client's decision to discontinue radiation treatments”

🔴 This action is an example of autonomy, because it respects the client’s right to make personal healthcare decisions.

🔴 It is not the best example of beneficence.

“Refusing to disclose personal client information without the client's permission”

🔴 This action reflects confidentiality and respect for privacy.

🔴 It does not specifically illustrate beneficence.

“Documenting client care immediately after it is performed”

🔴 Immediate charting supports accountability and accurate communication.

🔴 Although important, it is not the clearest example of beneficence.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Total Questions: 10

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