Question

A nurse is preparing to assess a client who reports they are experiencing frequent episodes of tension-type headaches (TTH). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Bilateral aching and pressure that feels like a tight band wrapped around the head

Rationale :

💎 Tension-type headache (TTH) classically presents as bilateral, dull, aching pain with a pressure or band-like sensation around the head.

💎 Clients often describe it as a feeling of tightness, heaviness, or squeezing rather than throbbing or pulsating pain.

💎 The pain is usually mild to moderate in intensity and is commonly associated with muscle tension in the scalp, neck, or shoulders.

💎 Unlike migraine headaches, tension headaches are generally not unilateral, are not strongly associated with nausea, and are not typically worsened by routine physical activity.

💎 For that reason, the manifestation the nurse should expect is bilateral aching and pressure that feels like a tight band wrapped around the head.

❌ Throbbing and pulsating unilateral pain is more characteristic of a migraine headache than a tension-type headache. Migraine pain is often one-sided, pulsating, and may be associated with nausea, photophobia, or phonophobia.

❌ Pulsing pain that worsens in the mornings and with forward-leaning suggests increased sinus pressure or possibly another secondary headache cause rather than TTH. A tension headache is usually more steady and pressure-like, not positional or sinus-patterned.

❌ Localized severe, stabbing pain located on one side of the head is more suggestive of cluster headache or another trigeminal autonomic headache. Cluster headaches are typically unilateral, very severe, and often focused around the eye or temple.

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Answer 2

Correct Answers:

"Weight loss could indicate you are experiencing adrenal insufficiency."

Rationale :

🔷 Prednisone is a corticosteroid, and long-term or improper use can suppress the adrenal glands, placing the client at risk for adrenal insufficiency.

🔷 If prednisone is reduced too quickly or stopped inappropriately, the body may not produce enough natural corticosteroids, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, hypotension, nausea, and weight loss.

🔷 Teaching the client to recognize warning signs of adrenal insufficiency is important because this complication can become serious if not addressed promptly.

🔷 The nurse should emphasize that unexpected weight loss in a client taking corticosteroids may be a concerning finding rather than a harmless change.

🔷 Therefore, the nurse should include the statement that weight loss could indicate adrenal insufficiency.

❌ "You can stop taking the medication abruptly if you feel better" is incorrect because corticosteroids should usually be tapered, not stopped suddenly. Abrupt discontinuation can trigger adrenal crisis or significant adrenal suppression symptoms.

❌ "This medication can lower your blood glucose levels" is incorrect because prednisone commonly raises blood glucose levels, especially in clients with diabetes or glucose intolerance. Hyperglycemia is a well-known adverse effect of corticosteroid therapy.

❌ "It is expected to experience swelling in the lower extremities" is misleading because although fluid retention can occur, swelling should not simply be dismissed as expected without monitoring. Edema may indicate significant fluid retention or another complication that requires evaluation.

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Answer 3

Correct Answers:

Inactivated vaccine

Rationale :

🟢 The pneumococcal vaccine is classified as an inactivated vaccine, meaning it does not contain a live organism capable of causing infection.

🟢 These vaccines work by stimulating the immune system to recognize bacterial components and build protection without producing the disease itself.

🟢 Because the vaccine is not live, it is generally safer for many populations, including older adults and many immunocompromised clients, depending on the specific formulation and clinical situation.

🟢 Pneumococcal vaccination is used to reduce the risk of serious infections such as pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

🟢 Therefore, the nurse should teach the client that the pneumococcal vaccine is an inactivated vaccine.

❌ Live-attenuated vaccine is incorrect because pneumococcal vaccines are not made from weakened live organisms. Live-attenuated vaccines contain live pathogens in a weakened form and are used for different vaccine types.

❌ Recombinant vaccine is incorrect because this classification applies to vaccines made through genetic engineering of specific antigenic parts, such as some hepatitis B vaccines. That is not the classification typically used for the pneumococcal vaccine in this context.

❌ Viral vector vaccine is incorrect because pneumococcal vaccination does not use a harmless virus to deliver genetic material into the body. Viral vector technology is used for some other vaccines, not pneumococcal vaccines.

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Answer 4

Correct Answers:

Cervical dystonia

Rationale :

🟣 OnabotulinumtoxinA (Botox) is a neuromuscular blocking agent that works by inhibiting acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction, leading to temporary muscle relaxation.

🟣 It is commonly used to treat conditions involving muscle overactivity or spasticity, including cervical dystonia, which is characterized by involuntary neck muscle contractions causing abnormal head posture and pain.

🟣 By relaxing the affected muscles, the medication helps reduce pain, stiffness, and abnormal movements associated with this condition.

🟣 It is also used for other indications such as chronic migraine, blepharospasm, and spastic disorders, but cervical dystonia is a classic and approved use.

🟣 Therefore, the correct indication the nurse should include is cervical dystonia.

❌ Hypertension is not treated with onabotulinumtoxinA because it is a cardiovascular condition requiring antihypertensives. Neuromuscular blockers do not regulate blood pressure.

❌ Hyperthyroidism involves excess thyroid hormone production and is treated with antithyroid drugs, beta-blockers, or radioactive iodine. Botox has no effect on thyroid hormone levels.

❌ Myocardial infarction is an acute cardiac emergency caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. It requires immediate interventions like oxygen, nitrates, and reperfusion therapy, not neuromuscular blockade.

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Answer 5

Correct Answers:

Migraine with aura is a contraindication for the use of combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives.

Rationale :

💠 Combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives include pills, patches, and vaginal rings, and current CDC guidance classifies migraine with aura as a condition in which combined hormonal contraceptives should not be used because of increased stroke risk.

💠 This is the most important teaching point in the options because it affects client safety and whether the method is appropriate at all.

💠 The vaginal combined hormonal ring is not replaced every 7 days; FDA labeling for NuvaRing states it is typically kept in place for 3 weeks (21 days), followed by a 1-week break (7 days).

💠 Combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives are also not available as a subdermal implant; the implant is a progestin-only method, not a combined estrogen-progestin method. This makes that option incorrect.

💠 Light-colored stools are not an expected routine effect to teach as a normal side effect of combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives, so the safest and most accurate teaching statement here is that migraine with aura is a contraindication.

❌ The vaginal estrogen-progestin contraceptive ring should be replaced every 7 days. This is incorrect because the ring is generally used in a 4-week cycle: 3 weeks in, 1 week out. Replacing it every 7 days does not reflect standard use instructions.

❌ Combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives are available in a subdermal implant form. This is incorrect because the subdermal implant is progestin-only, not a combined estrogen-progestin method. It should not be taught as a combined hormonal contraceptive option.

❌ Light-colored stools are an expected side effect of combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives. This is not a standard expected teaching point for combined hormonal contraceptives. It should not be presented as a routine expected effect.

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Answer 6

Correct Answers:

Significant liver disease

Rationale :

💎 Methotrexate is a hepatotoxic DMARD, making significant liver disease a major contraindication.

💎 The drug accumulates in the liver and can lead to fibrosis, cirrhosis, and irreversible liver damage.

💎 Clients with impaired hepatic function cannot metabolize the drug effectively, increasing toxicity risk.

💎 Continuous therapy requires frequent monitoring of liver enzymes (AST, ALT) due to potential damage.

💎 The nurse must avoid administering methotrexate in clients with liver disease to prevent severe complications.

❌ Allergic rhinitis

This condition is not related to liver function or methotrexate metabolism.

It does not increase the risk of drug toxicity or adverse effects.

❌ Controlled hypertension

Methotrexate does not significantly affect blood pressure control.

This condition does not interfere with the safety profile of the medication.

❌ History of peptic ulcer disease

While methotrexate may cause GI irritation, it is not a strict contraindication.

Clients can still receive the drug with monitoring and supportive care.

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Answer 7

Correct Answers:

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors

Rationale :

🎯 Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (e.g., allopurinol) reduce uric acid production, addressing the root cause of gout.

🎯 They block the xanthine oxidase enzyme, preventing purine breakdown into uric acid.

🎯 This leads to lower serum uric acid levels, helping prevent gout flare-ups.

🎯 These drugs are used for long-term prevention, not acute gout pain relief.

🎯 Consistent use helps maintain stable uric acid levels and prevents joint damage.

❌ Beta-lactam antibiotics

These treat bacterial infections, not metabolic disorders.

They have no effect on uric acid production.

❌ Calcium channel blockers

Used for hypertension and cardiac conditions.

They do not influence purine metabolism.

❌ ACE inhibitors

Primarily used for blood pressure control and heart failure.

They do not reduce uric acid levels significantly.

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Answer 8

Correct Answers:

Rituximab

Rationale :

🟣 Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20 on B-cells in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

🟣 It works by marking cancer cells for immune-mediated destruction.

🟣 This is a form of targeted immunotherapy, improving treatment specificity.

🟣 It is commonly used in B-cell lymphomas and some autoimmune disorders.

🟣 The nurse monitors for infusion reactions and immunosuppression during therapy.

❌ Allopurinol

Used for gout to reduce uric acid levels.

It does not target cancer cells or immune markers.

❌ Metformin

Used in type 2 diabetes to control glucose levels.

It has no role in cancer immunotherapy.

❌ Amoxicillin

A broad-spectrum antibiotic for infections.

It does not have anticancer properties.

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Answer 9

Correct Answers:

Atypical antipsychotics

Rationale :

🔷 Leuprolide can increase the risk of QT interval prolongation, and this risk becomes more concerning when it is used with atypical antipsychotics, many of which can also prolong the QT interval.

🔷 This combination can raise the chance of serious dysrhythmias, including torsades de pointes, especially in clients who also have electrolyte imbalance or cardiac risk factors.

🔷 The nurse should recognize this as the most important interaction among the listed options because it involves a potentially dangerous cardiac conduction effect.

🔷 Antibiotics as a broad class are not the best answer here because not all antibiotics interact with leuprolide in this way.

🔷 Atypical antipsychotics are the best choice because this medication group has a known association with QT prolongation, which can compound leuprolide’s cardiac risk.

❌ Antibiotics

❌ Antibiotics are a broad medication category, and they are not generally considered the key contraindicated class with leuprolide in this type of question.

❌ While some specific antibiotics may affect QT interval, the class as a whole is not the best answer here.

❌ Antihypertensives

❌ Antihypertensives are commonly used with many other drugs and are not the major contraindicating category for leuprolide.

❌ Their general action on blood pressure does not create the classic interaction pattern tested with this medication.

❌ Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

❌ NSAIDs are not the primary medication class associated with dangerous interaction with leuprolide in standard exam questions.

❌ They may have renal or GI risks, but they are not the main concern regarding QT prolongation here.

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Answer 10

Correct Answers:

Client's respiratory rate

Rationale :

🟢 During the initial bolus of magnesium sulfate, the most important assessment is the client’s respiratory rate because magnesium toxicity can quickly cause respiratory depression.

🟢 Loss of deep tendon reflexes and decreased urinary output are also important signs of toxicity, but airway and breathing take highest priority during the bolus because worsening toxicity can progress to respiratory paralysis.

🟢 StatPearls notes that at higher magnesium levels, respiratory depression and then respiratory paralysis can occur, which makes breathing assessment the most urgent bedside check.

🟢 Serum magnesium levels are useful for ongoing monitoring, but they are not as immediate as directly assessing the client’s breathing during administration.

🟢 For the nurse giving the loading dose, the priority is to recognize early signs of toxicity fast, and respiratory rate gives the most immediate safety information.

❌ Serum magnesium levels

❌ Serum levels are helpful for monitoring therapy and confirming whether the client is in the therapeutic range.

❌ They are not the most immediate bedside assessment during the initial bolus when rapid toxicity could affect breathing first.

❌ Deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)

❌ DTRs are an important clinical indicator because loss of patellar reflexes can suggest rising magnesium toxicity.

❌ Even so, if forced to choose the single most important assessment during the bolus, respiratory status comes first because it reflects life-threatening compromise.

❌ Observe characteristics and amount of urinary output

❌ Urinary output matters because magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and reduced output can increase toxicity risk.

❌ It remains a key monitoring point, but it is not as immediately critical as monitoring respirations during the loading dose.

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Custom NUR 3006 SPR26 EXAM 3

No.

1 :
A nurse is preparing to assess a client who reports they are experiencing frequent episodes of tension-type headaches (TTH). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

2 :
A nurse is teaching a client about potential adverse effects of prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

3 :
A nurse is educating a client who has just received the pneumococcal vaccine. The nurse should educate the client about which of the following types of vaccines?

4 :
A nurse is educating a client who has several chronic medical conditions. The client has a new prescription for onabotulinumtoxinA, a neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following conditions should the nurse include as an indication for the use of this medication?

5 :
A nurse is preparing an educational brochure for clients about combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

6 :
A nurse is educating a client about methotrexate, a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). The nurse should educate the client that which of the following client conditions is a contraindication for DMARD therapy?

7 :
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has been diagnosed with gout. Which of the following medication classes is effective for decreasing serum uric acid levels and preventing gouty arthritis?

8 :
A nurse is discussing the treatment options for a client who has non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following medications should the nurse describe as a monoclonal antibody that targets cancer cells for immune system elimination?

9 :
A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who is starting leuprolide for treatment of prostate cancer. Which of the following medication types should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for use with leuprolide?

10 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and has a prescription for a magnesium sulfate infusion. Which of the following assessments should the nurse recognize is the most important during administration of the initial bolus of this medication?

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Custom NUR 3006 SPR26 EXAM 3

No.

1 : A nurse is preparing to assess a client who reports they are experiencing frequent episodes of tension-type headaches (TTH). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

2 : A nurse is teaching a client about potential adverse effects of prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

3 : A nurse is educating a client who has just received the pneumococcal vaccine. The nurse should educate the client about which of the following types of vaccines?

4 : A nurse is educating a client who has several chronic medical conditions. The client has a new prescription for onabotulinumtoxinA, a neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following conditions should the nurse include as an indication for the use of this medication?

5 : A nurse is preparing an educational brochure for clients about combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

6 : A nurse is educating a client about methotrexate, a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). The nurse should educate the client that which of the following client conditions is a contraindication for DMARD therapy?

7 : A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has been diagnosed with gout. Which of the following medication classes is effective for decreasing serum uric acid levels and preventing gouty arthritis?

8 : A nurse is discussing the treatment options for a client who has non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following medications should the nurse describe as a monoclonal antibody that targets cancer cells for immune system elimination?

9 : A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who is starting leuprolide for treatment of prostate cancer. Which of the following medication types should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for use with leuprolide?

10 : A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and has a prescription for a magnesium sulfate infusion. Which of the following assessments should the nurse recognize is the most important during administration of the initial bolus of this medication?

1 :
A nurse is preparing to assess a client who reports they are experiencing frequent episodes of tension-type headaches (TTH). Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

2 :
A nurse is teaching a client about potential adverse effects of prednisone. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

3 :
A nurse is educating a client who has just received the pneumococcal vaccine. The nurse should educate the client about which of the following types of vaccines?

4 :
A nurse is educating a client who has several chronic medical conditions. The client has a new prescription for onabotulinumtoxinA, a neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following conditions should the nurse include as an indication for the use of this medication?

5 :
A nurse is preparing an educational brochure for clients about combined estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

6 :
A nurse is educating a client about methotrexate, a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). The nurse should educate the client that which of the following client conditions is a contraindication for DMARD therapy?

7 :
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has been diagnosed with gout. Which of the following medication classes is effective for decreasing serum uric acid levels and preventing gouty arthritis?

8 :
A nurse is discussing the treatment options for a client who has non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Which of the following medications should the nurse describe as a monoclonal antibody that targets cancer cells for immune system elimination?

9 :
A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client who is starting leuprolide for treatment of prostate cancer. Which of the following medication types should the nurse recognize as a contraindication for use with leuprolide?

10 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and has a prescription for a magnesium sulfate infusion. Which of the following assessments should the nurse recognize is the most important during administration of the initial bolus of this medication?