1 :

Hint : 🫁 TB treatment needs sputum follow-up.

Correct Answers:

  • "Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing."


Rationale :

🔵 Clients receiving treatment for tuberculosis (TB) need ongoing sputum testing to evaluate the response to therapy and determine whether the infection is becoming controlled.

🔵 Serial sputum specimens help monitor for continued presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and help confirm when the client is becoming less infectious.

🔵 This follow-up is especially important during the early phase of treatment because medication effectiveness must be verified clinically and microbiologically.

🔵 Although schedules may vary by provider and facility, the need for regular sputum monitoring is a key teaching point during anti-TB therapy.

🔵 This option is the best answer because it reflects the need for continued evaluation during treatment, unlike the other options which contain incorrect medication instructions.

"Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet."

🔵 Drinking water with medications is generally acceptable, but this is not the most important teaching point specific to pyrazinamide therapy.

🔵 More critical teaching includes monitoring for hepatotoxicity and adherence to the full multidrug regimen.

"Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy."

🔵 Clients should not be taught to expect sputum cultures to remain positive until 6 months, because improvement and culture conversion often occur much earlier.

🔵 This statement is inaccurate and may create confusion about treatment progress and infection control.

"Take isoniazid with an antacid."

🔵 Isoniazid should not be routinely taken with antacids because antacids can interfere with its absorption.

🔵 The medication is usually given on an empty stomach for best absorption unless gastrointestinal upset requires adjustment.


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2 :

Hint : 🩺 Steroid, biologic, selected antibiotic.

Correct Answers:

  • Methylprednisolone
  • Golimumab
  • Ciprofloxacin


Rationale :

"Methylprednisolone"

🟢 Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that is used to reduce intestinal inflammation during an acute ulcerative colitis flare-up.

🟢 It helps suppress the exaggerated immune response that contributes to mucosal injury and worsening diarrhea, bleeding, and abdominal pain.

🟢 Corticosteroids are commonly used for moderate to severe flares when rapid anti-inflammatory action is needed.

🟢 This medication is not intended for long-term maintenance, but it is very effective for bringing acute symptoms under control.

🟢 It is appropriate because the priority during a flare is to reduce active inflammation and stabilize the client.

"Golimumab"

🟢 Golimumab is a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor used in clients with moderate to severe ulcerative colitis.

🟢 It works by blocking inflammatory cytokine activity, which helps reduce intestinal inflammation and promote mucosal healing.

🟢 This biologic therapy is appropriate when ulcerative colitis is not adequately controlled with more conventional therapies or when disease activity is significant.

🟢 It is part of targeted therapy aimed at controlling the immune-mediated component of the disease.

🟢 This makes it an appropriate medication choice for ulcerative colitis management.

"Ciprofloxacin"

🟢 Ciprofloxacin may be used in some clients with ulcerative colitis when there is concern for infection, severe disease, or specific complications.

🟢 Although it is not the primary anti-inflammatory treatment, it can be used as an adjunct in selected clinical situations.

🟢 Clients with acute flare-ups may have significant bowel inflammation and altered gut flora, and antibiotics may be prescribed depending on the clinical picture.

🟢 The question asks which medications are appropriate for use, and ciprofloxacin can be appropriate in certain ulcerative colitis settings.

🟢 For that reason, it is included among the correct selections.

"Aspirin"

🟢 Aspirin can irritate the gastrointestinal tract and may worsen symptoms such as bleeding and mucosal inflammation.

🟢 It is not used as a treatment for ulcerative colitis flare-ups.

"Sumatriptan"

🟢 Sumatriptan is used to treat migraine headaches, not inflammatory bowel disease.

🟢 It has no therapeutic role in reducing bowel inflammation in ulcerative colitis.

"Ibuprofen"

🟢 Ibuprofen is an NSAID, and NSAIDs can aggravate gastrointestinal inflammation and worsen ulcerative colitis symptoms.

🟢 It is not considered an appropriate medication for managing an acute ulcerative colitis flare.


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3 :

Hint : 💉Septic shock needs vasopressor.

Correct Answers:

  • Start infusion of Norepinephrine 4mg/250mL D5W


Rationale :

🔴 Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for clients in septic shock who remain hypotensive after aggressive fluid resuscitation.

🔴 This client has a very low blood pressure and persistent signs of shock, so immediate vasopressor support is needed to improve tissue perfusion.

🔴 Norepinephrine works primarily by causing vasoconstriction, which increases systemic vascular resistance and raises blood pressure.

🔴 It is preferred over other vasoactive agents in septic shock because it is effective for restoring perfusion without being the wrong type of vasodilator therapy.

🔴 This order is expected because the priority is to treat refractory hypotension and prevent further organ hypoperfusion.

"Start infusion of Nitroglycerin 50 mg/250 mL 0.9% NS."

🔴 Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator, which would further lower blood pressure in a client already experiencing severe hypotension.

🔴 It is not appropriate for septic shock with refractory low blood pressure.

"Start infusion of Dobutamine 500 mg/250 mL D5W."

🔴 Dobutamine can be used in some shock states when cardiac output support is needed, but it is not the first-line medication for severe hypotension in septic shock after fluids.

🔴 The immediate priority is vasoconstriction with norepinephrine, not inotropic support alone.

"Start infusion of Nitroprusside 100 mg/250 mL D5W."

🔴 Nitroprusside is another potent vasodilator and would dangerously worsen this client’s hypotension.

🔴 It is not indicated in septic shock when the blood pressure is already critically low.


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4 :

Hint : 🧼 C. diff = soap and water.

Correct Answers:

  • Wash hands with soap and water


Rationale :

🟠 Clostridium difficile forms spores, and these spores are not reliably destroyed by alcohol-based hand sanitizer.

🟠 Soap and water physically remove the spores from the hands and is the recommended method of hand hygiene after contact with a client who has C. difficile.

🟠 Because the nurse’s glove tore, there is a risk that the hands came into direct contact with infectious material.

🟠 Handwashing with soap and water is the priority action to reduce transmission and protect both the nurse and other clients.

🟠 This is the correct answer because proper hand hygiene is the most important immediate intervention after glove contamination in a spore-forming infection.

"Don a clean pair of nonsterile gloves."

🟠 Donning new gloves without first cleaning the hands traps contamination underneath the gloves.

🟠 Hand hygiene must occur before applying another pair of gloves.

"Wash hands with alcohol-based hand sanitizer."

🟠 Alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not effective against C. difficile spores.

🟠 The correct method is soap and water, not sanitizer alone.

"Wash hands with a bleach wipe from a nearby container."

🟠 Bleach wipes are used for environmental surface disinfection, not for routine handwashing.

🟠 Using them on the skin is inappropriate and does not replace handwashing with soap and water.


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5 :

Hint : 📌“Panto-” is the PPI clue.

Correct Answers:

  • Pantoprazole


Rationale :

🟣 Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that decreases gastric acid secretion by blocking the hydrogen-potassium ATPase pump in the stomach.

🟣 PPIs are commonly prescribed for peptic ulcer disease because they promote healing by reducing acid exposure at the ulcer site.

🟣 This makes the gastric environment less irritating and supports mucosal recovery.

🟣 Pantoprazole is correctly classified as a PPI, unlike the other options which are H2-receptor antagonists.

🟣 This medication is the expected choice when the provider specifically orders a proton pump inhibitor.

Ranitidine

🟣 Ranitidine is an H2-receptor blocker, not a proton pump inhibitor.

🟣 It reduces acid secretion differently and does not belong to the PPI class.

Famotidine

🟣 Famotidine is also an H2-receptor antagonist, not a PPI.

🟣 Although it can be used for acid-related disorders, it is not the correct answer when the provider specifies a proton pump inhibitor.

Cimetidine

🟣 Cimetidine is an H2 blocker, not a proton pump inhibitor.

🟣 It is not the medication the nurse would anticipate if the order is specifically for a PPI.


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6 :

Hint : 📐 Convert, multiply, divide.

Correct Answers:

  • 10


Rationale :

✍️140 lb to kg

✍️140 ÷ 2.2 = 63.6 kg

✍️2 mg × 63.6 kg = 127.2 mg

✍️The concentration supplied is 50 mg/4 mL

✍️Which equals 12.5 mg/mL.

📍127.2 ÷ 12.5

📍10.176 mL.

📍Rounded to the nearest whole number, 10 mL.


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7 :

Hint : 🔥Think leak, loss, low volume.

Correct Answers:

  • Loss of protein
  • Decreased plasma volume
  • Capillary leak


Rationale :

Loss of protein

🟡 Major burns cause increased capillary permeability, allowing protein to leak from the intravascular space into the interstitial tissues.

🟡 This protein loss contributes to edema and decreases the oncotic pressure needed to keep fluid in the vascular compartment.

🟡 Clients with extensive burns often have significant fluid shifts and loss of important plasma components.

🟡 Protein loss is a hallmark physiologic response in severe burn injury and contributes to the severity of burn shock.

🟡 This is an expected finding in a client with burns over a large body surface area.

Decreased plasma volume

🟡 Severe burns lead to large fluid shifts out of the bloodstream and into the tissues, causing decreased plasma volume.

🟡 This occurs because damaged capillaries become leaky and allow fluid to escape into the interstitial space.

🟡 Reduced plasma volume places the client at high risk for hypovolemic burn shock.

🟡 The nurse should anticipate signs such as hypotension, tachycardia, and reduced urine output as a result of this fluid loss.

🟡 Decreased plasma volume is one of the most important physiologic consequences of major burns.

Capillary leak

🟡 Capillary leak occurs after major burns because the inflammatory response damages capillary integrity.

🟡 This causes fluid, electrolytes, and proteins to move from the intravascular space into surrounding tissues.

🟡 Capillary leak is a major reason why clients with extensive burns develop edema and circulatory instability.

🟡 It begins early after the injury and is central to the pathophysiology of burn shock.

🟡 The nurse should absolutely expect this change in a client with 50% total body surface area burns.

Diuresis

🟡 In the early phase after major burns, the client is more likely to experience oliguria, not diuresis, because of decreased circulating volume.

🟡 Diuresis is not an expected initial physiologic change in severe burn injury.

Hypermagnesemia

🟡 Hypermagnesemia is not a classic physiologic response expected in major burns.

🟡 More common early concerns include fluid loss, capillary leak, electrolyte imbalance such as hyperkalemia, and decreased plasma volume.


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8 :

Morphine 4mg IV q3 hours

Ketorolac 20mg IV twice a day


Complete the following sentence using the drop-downs. The nurse should determine whether the IV line is because may interfere with .


Hint : 💉Pain persists? Check patency first.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: patent
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: infiltration
  • Blank 3 Correct Option: absorption

Rationale :

💎 Patency of the IV line should be checked first when an IV pain medication does not relieve pain as expected, because the medication may not be entering the bloodstream properly.

💎 Infiltration occurs when IV fluid or medication leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of remaining in the vein.

💎 When infiltration occurs, the ordered IV medication is not delivered effectively into the circulation, so the client may continue to have unrelieved pain.

💎 This problem interferes with absorption of the medication into the vascular system, which delays or prevents the intended analgesic effect.

💎 For a postoperative client receiving IV morphine and ketorolac, checking whether the line is patent is a priority nursing action before assuming the medication itself is ineffective.


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9 :

When caring for a HIV+ patient the nurse is aware that indicates an opportunistic infection. It is caused by and treated with .


Hint : 👄White mouth plaques = thrush.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: white plaque in the mouth
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: candidiasis
  • Blank 3 Correct Option: Fluconazole

Rationale :

🔷 White plaque in the mouth in a client with HIV is highly suggestive of oral candidiasis (thrush), which is a common opportunistic infection in immunocompromised patients.

🔷 This infection is caused by Candida, a fungal organism that overgrows when the immune system is weakened.

🔷 Oral thrush often appears as creamy white patches on the tongue, gums, or inner cheeks and may be painful or difficult to swallow.

🔷 Fluconazole is an appropriate antifungal medication because it is effective against Candida infections and is commonly used to treat oral candidiasis in HIV-positive clients.

🔷 The nurse should recognize this finding promptly because opportunistic infections may indicate immune suppression and the need for further evaluation of the client’s HIV status and treatment response.


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10 :

1/5 1200

Day 1

Mary is 85 years old, lives alone, and is active in her community. She has a long-standing history of hypertension, congestive heart failure (CHF), and controlled atrial fibrillation for which she takes Coumadin. She was admitted to the hospital for a right knee replacement. Her post-operative recovery period was complicated by an exacerbation of CHF, for which her cardiologist ordered Furosemide 20mg IV every 6 hours. Due to the heavy diuresis and limited mobility post-op, the provider ordered an indwelling urinary catheter.

1/6 0900

Day 2

UAP reports after bathing the client appears confused. Client assessed, UAP to obtain a new set of vital signs. Cloudy urine with heavy sediment noted in the collection bag. Provider notified; urine culture sent.

DateTemperaturePulseRespirationsBlood PressurePain Scale (0-10)Alertness
1/5 Day 136.7 C / 98.0 F84 Irregular18 Regular146/883Awake/oriented
1/6 Day 236.0 C / 96.8 F96 Irregular24 Shallow128/784Awake/disoriented to time
1/7 Day 338.5 C / 101.3 F132 Irregular26 Shallow94/526Awake/disoriented to time and place

 

1/5

1025

Routine post-op care

Captopril 25mg by mouth every 12 hours

Furosemide 20mg IV every 6 hours

Acetaminophen 650mg by mouth every four hours

Indwelling Catheter

Bilateral sequential compression devices

Regular diet

Initiate patient-controlled analgesia

1/6

0900

Obtain urine culture

Warfarin 5mg by mouth daily

Day 2

1/7

0800

Cefepime 2grams IV every 12 hours

Obtain a set of blood cultures

Day 3

Stat lactate level

1000mL lactated ringers 170mL/hr

Famotidine 20mg IV every 12 hours

Fingerstick glucose every 6 hours

Regular insulin 5 units sc every 6 hours for blood glucose greater than 130

Discontinue indwelling urinary catheter

Discontinue Furosemide

Lab Test1/5 0730 Day 11/6 0500 Day 21/7 0815 Day 3Reference Range
WBC9,40013,00021,0004,500 - 10,500/mm3
Hemoglobin12121213.8 - 17.2 g/dL
Hematocrit32323241 - 50%
Platelets150,00081,00050,000150,000 - 450,000 mm3
INR4.14.45.02.0 - 3.0
Potassium4.03.93.53.5 - 5.0 meq/L
Glucose9113824070 - 100 mg/dL
Lactate  7.0<2.0 mmol/L

Which of the day 2 lab values would alert the RN that Mary might be experiencing systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? (Select All that Apply.)


Answer Options

Hint : 🌡️ SIRS lab clue = high WBC.

Correct Answers:

  • WBC


Rationale :

🟣 A WBC count of 13,000/mm³ on Day 2 is above the normal reference range and is one of the classic findings that can indicate systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).

🟣 An elevated white blood cell count reflects activation of the body’s inflammatory and immune response, often in the setting of infection or significant physiologic stress.

🟣 In Mary’s case, the abnormal urine findings, new confusion, and rising WBC together increase concern that she may be developing a systemic inflammatory process related to a urinary source.

🟣 SIRS criteria include abnormalities in temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and WBC count, making this lab value especially important.

🟣 Because the question asks which Day 2 lab value would alert the RN to possible SIRS, WBC is the most clearly correct choice.

Hematocrit

🟣 Mary’s hematocrit of 32% is low, but it is unchanged and does not specifically indicate SIRS.

🟣 A low hematocrit may reflect anemia or blood loss rather than an acute systemic inflammatory response.

Blood glucose

🟣 Mary’s blood glucose of 138 mg/dL is elevated above the normal reference range, but it is not one of the primary classic SIRS diagnostic criteria used in routine bedside assessment.

🟣 The most direct Day 2 lab clue for SIRS in this question is the elevated WBC, not the mildly increased glucose.

Platelets

🟣 Mary’s platelet count of 81,000/mm³ is abnormal and concerning, especially because it is decreasing.

🟣 However, thrombocytopenia is more suggestive of worsening illness or possible sepsis-related complications than a primary SIRS criterion itself.

INR

🟣 Mary’s INR of 4.4 is elevated and is important because she is taking Warfarin, which increases her bleeding risk.

🟣 This abnormality reflects altered coagulation status, not a defining laboratory sign of SIRS.

Potassium

🟣 Mary’s potassium of 3.9 mEq/L is within the normal reference range.

🟣 A normal potassium level does not support the presence of SIRS.


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Total Questions: 10

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