Question

A nurse is caring for a client who has a thoracic spine injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when turning the client?

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Use a sheet when repositioning the client onto his side.

Rationale :

🔷 A thoracic spine injury requires strict spinal alignment to prevent worsening injury and potential neurologic damage.

🔷 Using a draw sheet supports a controlled logroll-type turn, keeping the head, shoulders, spine, and hips moving as one unit.

🔷 This method reduces twisting, shearing, and rotational movement that could destabilize the spine.

🔷 A sheet also allows multiple staff to coordinate the turn smoothly and safely while maintaining neutral alignment.

🔷 This action protects the spinal cord and promotes safe repositioning during required turns.

Place a pillow under the client's knees when changing positions.

🔷A knee pillow may support comfort, but it does not ensure thoracic spinal stability during turning.

🔷The priority is maintaining spinal alignment during movement, not knee positioning.

Apply an immobilizing collar on the client prior to movement.

🔷A collar immobilizes the cervical spine, not the thoracic spine.

🔷The key intervention for turning is logrolling with alignment, not adding a collar unless cervical injury is present.

Instruct the client to keep his arms at his side when altering positions.

🔷Arm placement does not prevent spinal rotation or ensure alignment.

🔷Proper turning technique with a sheet and coordinated staff is the safety priority.

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Answer 2

Correct Answers

Blank 1 Correct Option: sepsis
Blank 2 Correct Option: maternal vaginal/rectal culture

Rationale :

🔷 Early-onset neonatal sepsis is a major risk when the mother has a positive Group B streptococcus (GBS) vaginal/rectal culture.

🔷 This newborn is especially vulnerable because the birth was precipitous and the mother received no intrapartum antibiotics, which increases newborn exposure risk.

🔷 GBS can be transmitted during vaginal birth and may lead to sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis in the first days of life.

🔷 The evidence that supports this risk is the maternal vaginal/rectal culture positive for GBS, which is the screening used to predict neonatal exposure.

🔷 Nursing priority includes monitoring for subtle signs such as temperature instability, poor feeding, lethargy, respiratory distress, and implementing ordered newborn sepsis protocols.

Blindness

🔷 Neonatal blindness risk is more closely linked to gonorrhea or chlamydia exposure, which are negative in this case.

🔷Routine eye prophylaxis targets these infections, not GBS-related risk.

ABO incompatibility

🔷 ABO incompatibility is related to maternal and newborn blood type mismatch (commonly mother O with baby A/B).

🔷In this case, the mother is type A, and the newborn is also type A, so ABO incompatibility is not supported.

Maternal history of bacterial vaginosis

🔷 Bacterial vaginosis can increase some pregnancy risks, but it is not the key indicator used here for predicting neonatal sepsis risk.

🔷The strongest evidence in the scenario is the GBS vaginal/rectal culture positive with no antibiotic prophylaxis.

Maternal and newborn’s blood type

🔷 Blood type comparison is relevant for ABO incompatibility, not GBS-related sepsis risk.

🔷Since both are type A, this does not indicate a hemolytic risk factor.

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Answer 3

Correct Answers:

Reinforce orientation to time, place, and person.
Give the client one simple direction at a time.
Establish eye contact when communicating with the client.

Rationale :

Reinforce orientation to time, place, and person.

🔷 Reality orientation supports clients with dementia by strengthening awareness of time, place, and person.

🔷 Frequent, calm reminders can reduce anxiety and confusion, especially during care tasks and transitions.

🔷 Using clocks, calendars, and naming the location improves consistency and supports daily functioning.

🔷 Orientation techniques are most effective when delivered in a non-confrontational, supportive manner.

🔷 This intervention promotes safety and reduces distress caused by disorientation.

Give the client one simple direction at a time.

🔷 Dementia reduces the ability to process complex information, so simple, single-step directions improve comprehension.

🔷 Breaking tasks into small steps reduces frustration and increases cooperation with care.

🔷 This approach helps the client maintain independence for as long as possible.

🔷 It also decreases the risk of agitation triggered by feeling overwhelmed.

🔷 Clear, one-step directions support safe and successful completion of ADLs.

Establish eye contact when communicating with the client.

🔷 Eye contact improves attention and connection, helping the client focus on the message.

🔷 It supports therapeutic communication and reduces misinterpretation of instructions.

🔷 Nonverbal cues become more important as cognitive function declines.

🔷 Eye contact also reassures the client and can lower anxiety during care.

🔷 This improves cooperation and strengthens trust between nurse and client.

Refute the client's delusions using logic.

🔷Arguing or using logic often increases agitation because dementia impairs reasoning.

🔷Therapeutic responses use calm reassurance and redirection rather than confrontation.

Allow the client to choose among a variety of activities each day.

🔷Too many choices can overwhelm a client with dementia and increase confusion.

🔷Structured, limited choices (one or two options) are more supportive.

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Answer 4

Correct Answers:

Standard

Rationale :

🟣 Erythema migrans is associated with Lyme disease, which is transmitted through a tick bite, not person-to-person spread.

🟣 Because it is not spread by contact, droplets, or airborne routes, Standard Precautions are appropriate.

🟣 Standard Precautions include hand hygiene and PPE when exposure to blood or body fluids is anticipated.

🟣 The goal is to prevent routine healthcare-associated transmission of organisms.

🟣 Additional isolation precautions are not required because Lyme disease does not transmit through casual contact.

Contact

🟣Contact precautions are used for organisms spread through direct/indirect contact (e.g., C. diff).

🟣Lyme disease is not transmitted this way in clinical settings.

Droplet

🟣Droplet precautions apply to respiratory infections spread by coughing/sneezing.

🟣Erythema migrans is not droplet-spread.

Airborne

🟣Airborne precautions are for organisms like TB and measles.

🟣Tick-borne infections do not require airborne isolation.

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Answer 5

Correct Answers:

Tremors
Diaphoresis
Inability to concentrat

Rationale :

Tremors

🔴 Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system, causing shakiness/tremors.

🔴 The body releases epinephrine to raise glucose, producing adrenergic symptoms.

🔴 Tremors are often an early warning sign that glucose is falling rapidly.

🔴 Recognizing tremors prompts immediate glucose assessment and treatment.

🔴 This helps prevent progression to severe neurologic impairment.

Diaphoresis

🔴 Sweating is a classic adrenergic sign of hypoglycemia driven by epinephrine release.

🔴 Clients may report clamminess or be visibly diaphoretic even without fever.

🔴 It often occurs early and may accompany palpitations and anxiety.

🔴 Prompt recognition supports rapid intervention with fast-acting carbohydrates if safe.

🔴 Early treatment reduces risk of seizure or loss of consciousness.

Inability to concentrate

🔴 The brain depends on glucose, so hypoglycemia causes neuroglycopenic symptoms like confusion and poor concentration.

🔴 The client may appear irritable, distracted, or have slowed thinking.

🔴 This finding indicates the glucose level may already be significantly low.

🔴 Immediate blood glucose testing is warranted to confirm hypoglycemia.

🔴 Treating quickly prevents worsening neurologic compromise.

Acetone breath odor

🔴This is more consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) from hyperglycemia and ketone production.

🔴It is not typical of hypoglycemia.

Polydipsia

🔴Excessive thirst occurs with hyperglycemia due to osmotic diuresis.

🔴Hypoglycemia more often presents with sweating, shakiness, and confusion.

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Answer 6

Correct Answers:

Provide the client with a stool softener.

Rationale :

🟢 Thrombocytopenia increases risk for bleeding, including GI bleeding.

🟢 Straining during bowel movements can cause rectal bleeding or hemorrhoidal bleeding.

🟢 A stool softener reduces straining and helps protect fragile mucosal tissue.

🟢 This intervention supports bleeding prevention while maintaining normal elimination.

🟢 It is a common safety measure for clients with low platelet counts.

Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.

🟢This is more relevant to neutropenia precautions to reduce infection risk.

🟢Thrombocytopenia focuses on bleeding risk, not food-borne infection prevention.

Encourage the client to floss daily.

🟢Flossing can cause gum bleeding when platelets are low.

🟢Soft toothbrush use is safer, and flossing may be avoided depending on platelet level.

Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.

🟢This is used for neutropenia due to infection risk from standing water.

🟢It is not a priority intervention for thrombocytopenia.

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Answer 7

Correct Answers:

Doxycycline

Rationale :

🟠 Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly treated with doxycycline, a first-line antibiotic for uncomplicated infection.

🟠 Doxycycline works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, effectively clearing intracellular organisms like chlamydia.

🟠 Prompt treatment reduces risk of complications such as PID, infertility, and chronic pelvic pain.

🟠 Clients should be taught to complete the full course and ensure partners are treated to prevent reinfection.

🟠 Education includes abstaining from intercourse until treatment is completed and symptoms resolve.

Metronidazole

🟠This treats bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis, not chlamydia.

🟠It does not target Chlamydia trachomatis effectively.

Acyclovir

🟠This is an antiviral used for herpes infections.

🟠Chlamydia is bacterial and requires antibiotics.

Ceftriaxone

🟠This is commonly used for gonorrhea, not chlamydia alone.

🟠It may be added when coinfection with gonorrhea is suspected.

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Answer 8

Correct Answers:

Determine if the tablets are scored.

Rationale :

⚫ A scored tablet is designed to be split accurately, supporting a more precise half-dose.

⚫ Determining whether the tablet is scored prevents uneven dosing and reduces medication errors.

⚫ Some tablets should not be split (e.g., extended-release, enteric-coated), so verification protects safety.

⚫ The nurse should also encourage using a pill splitter for accuracy if splitting is appropriate.

⚫ This step ensures the client takes the correct dose while maintaining drug effectiveness.

Manually break the tablets in half.

⚫Hand-breaking often results in unequal halves and inaccurate dosing.

⚫This increases risk of underdosing or overdosing.

Ask the pharmacy to create a liquid version of the medication.

⚫This may be an option, but first the nurse should check if the current tablet can safely be split.

⚫Liquids may also be unavailable or costly.

Instruct the client to discard the medication in the toilet.

⚫This is unsafe disposal and not recommended due to environmental contamination.

⚫Proper disposal follows pharmacy take-back guidance.

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Answer 9

Correct Answers

Blank 1 Correct Option: thoughts of self harm
Blank 2 Correct Option: hopelessness

Rationale :

🔷 Hopelessness is a major warning sign for suicide risk, especially when the client verbalizes distress like “My life is a mess” and “I have so many problems.”

🔷 The client shows multiple depressive cues—flat affect, tearfulness, social withdrawal, and refusing meals—which can indicate worsening depression and impaired coping.

🔷 Recent major stressors (relationship ending and job loss) increase risk for self-harm thoughts because they can trigger feelings of worthlessness and loss of control.

🔷 The client has been on sertraline for 6 weeks, and antidepressants can sometimes increase energy before mood improves, which may increase the ability to act on suicidal thoughts in high-risk clients.

🔷 This combination makes self-harm risk the priority concern, requiring focused assessment for suicidal ideation, plan, means, and immediate safety precautions.

Anorexia nervosa — evidenced by decreased intake

🔷The client’s refusal to eat is more consistent with depressive symptoms (loss of appetite) rather than anorexia nervosa.

🔷Anorexia nervosa involves body-image disturbance and fear of weight gain, which are not indicated here.

Acute dystonic reaction — evidenced by medication

🔷Acute dystonic reactions are typically associated with antipsychotic medications (dopamine blockers), not SSRIs like sertraline.

🔷There are no findings such as muscle spasms, neck twisting, or facial grimacing to support dystonia.

Thoughts of self harm — evidenced by medication

🔷While antidepressant therapy requires monitoring, medication alone is not the strongest evidence in this scenario.

🔷The clearest clinical cue pointing to self-harm risk is hopelessness paired with severe psychosocial stressors and depressive behavior.

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Answer 10

Correct Answers

Blank 1 Correct Option: opioid intoxication
Blank 2 Correct Option: pupil characteristics

Rationale :

🔷 The client’s presentation strongly matches opioid intoxication, shown by decreased level of consciousness and respiratory depression (RR 10/min).

🔷 The most specific evidence provided is the pupil characteristics: miotic (pinpoint) pupils, which is a classic opioid finding.

🔷 The scene report of a needle in the left antecubital space supports opioid use and possible overdose.

🔷 The fact that naloxone was administered by EMS indicates responders suspected opioid overdose, which aligns with the current assessment.

🔷 Opioid intoxication is a life-threatening emergency because it suppresses breathing, so the priority is airway support and continuous monitoring for re-sedation.

Alcohol intoxication — amount of alcohol consumed

🔷One beer does not usually cause severe unresponsiveness with pinpoint pupils and marked respiratory depression.

🔷Alcohol intoxication more commonly causes CNS depression, but the strongest clue here is miosis + needle evidence.

Alcohol withdrawal — current temperature

🔷Alcohol withdrawal typically includes tremors, agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, and possible fever, not pinpoint pupils and slow respirations.

🔷The client’s findings are more consistent with opioid effects than withdrawal physiology.

Opioid withdrawal — pupil characteristics

🔷Opioid withdrawal causes mydriasis (dilated pupils), not miosis, and often includes diaphoresis, piloerection, hyperreflexia, tachycardia, and hypertension.

🔷Those withdrawal findings appeared in the prior record at 1000 two weeks ago, not in the current presentation.

Breath sounds

🔷Clear breath sounds do not distinguish opioid intoxication from alcohol-related conditions because lungs can be clear in multiple states.

🔷The more diagnostic cue in this scenario is pupil size and respiratory rate.

Current temperature

🔷The temperature is near normal and does not explain the client’s profound CNS depression.

🔷Opioid overdose is better supported by miosis and bradypnea.

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RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 (2026)

No.

1 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has a thoracic spine injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when turning the client?

2 :
A nurse is caring for a newborn.

Correct Answers

3 :
A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

4 :
A nurse in a community clinic is caring for a client who has erythema migrans. The nurse should implement which of the following precautions?

5 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client reports that she is not feeling well. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is hypoglycemic? (Select all that apply.)

6 :
A nurse is planning care for a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

7 :
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chlamydia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

8 :
A home health nurse is verifying a client's prescribed medications and notes that one medication dose was decreased by half. The client asks the nurse if they can cut the tablets in half. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

9 :
A nurse on a mental health unit is caring for a client.

Correct Answers

10 :
A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.

Correct Answers

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RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 (2026)

No.

1 : A nurse is caring for a client who has a thoracic spine injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when turning the client?

2 : A nurse is caring for a newborn.

Correct Answers

3 : A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

4 : A nurse in a community clinic is caring for a client who has erythema migrans. The nurse should implement which of the following precautions?

5 : A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client reports that she is not feeling well. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is hypoglycemic? (Select all that apply.)

6 : A nurse is planning care for a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

7 : A nurse is planning care for a client who has chlamydia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

8 : A home health nurse is verifying a client's prescribed medications and notes that one medication dose was decreased by half. The client asks the nurse if they can cut the tablets in half. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

9 : A nurse on a mental health unit is caring for a client.

Correct Answers

10 : A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.

Correct Answers

1 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has a thoracic spine injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when turning the client?

2 :
A nurse is caring for a newborn.

3 :
A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

4 :
A nurse in a community clinic is caring for a client who has erythema migrans. The nurse should implement which of the following precautions?

5 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client reports that she is not feeling well. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is hypoglycemic? (Select all that apply.)

6 :
A nurse is planning care for a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

7 :
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chlamydia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?

8 :
A home health nurse is verifying a client's prescribed medications and notes that one medication dose was decreased by half. The client asks the nurse if they can cut the tablets in half. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

9 :
A nurse on a mental health unit is caring for a client.

10 :
A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.