1 :

Hint : Find concentration first → then divide by time.

Correct Answers:

  • 400


Rationale :

20 g in 1000 mL

= 20,000 mg in 1000 mL

= 20 mg/mL

Order: 4 g

= 4,000 mg

mL needed = 4,000 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL

= 200 mL

Time = 30 min = 0.5 hr

Rate = 200 mL ÷ 0.5 hr

= 400 mL/hr


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2 :

Hint : Blue cervix = Chadwick

Correct Answers:

  • Chadwick sign


Rationale :

🟢 Chadwick sign refers to the violet-blue discoloration of the vaginal mucosa and cervix that occurs in early pregnancy due to increased vascularity and pelvic blood flow.

🟢 Around 6–8 weeks of gestation, hormonal changes—especially rising estrogen levels—cause engorgement of pelvic blood vessels, producing the characteristic bluish coloration.

🟢 This finding is considered a probable sign of pregnancy, meaning it is observed by the examiner but not diagnostic on its own.

🟢 Increased vascular congestion enhances blood supply to the cervix and vaginal walls, resulting in the visible color change.

🟢 Proper documentation should clearly identify this as Chadwick sign, distinguishing it from other early pregnancy physical findings.

❌ Hegar sign

Hegar sign refers to softening of the lower uterine segment, not discoloration of the vaginal mucosa. It is detected through bimanual examination rather than visual inspection.

❌ Goodell sign

Goodell sign describes softening of the cervix due to increased vascularization. It does not involve a color change of the vaginal tissue.

❌ Ballottement

Ballottement is the rebound movement of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during examination. It occurs later in pregnancy and is unrelated to mucosal discoloration.


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3 :

Hint : Twins = 1 pregnancy, 2 living

Correct Answers:

  • G5 T1 P2 A1 L3


Rationale :

🔵 Gravida (G) refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one; this client has had 5 pregnancies (twins at 35 weeks, one at 39 weeks, one miscarriage at 10 weeks, one fetal demise at 24 weeks, and the current pregnancy).

🔵 Term (T) includes births at 37 weeks or greater, so the 39-week delivery counts as 1 term birth.

🔵 Preterm (P) includes births between 20 and 36 weeks, so the twins delivered at 35 weeks count as 1 preterm pregnancy (twins count as one pregnancy, not two).

🔵 The fetal demise at 24 weeks also counts as a preterm birth, bringing the total preterm pregnancies to 2.

🔵 Abortions (A) include pregnancy losses before 20 weeks, so the miscarriage at 10 weeks counts as 1 abortion, and Living (L) equals 3 living children (the twins and the term infant).

❌ G5 T2 P2 A2 L3

There was only one term delivery at 39 weeks, not two. The miscarriage at 10 weeks counts as one abortion, not two.

❌ G5 T1 P1 A1 L3

This undercounts preterm births because both the 35-week twin delivery and the 24-week fetal demise count as preterm pregnancies. There are two preterm deliveries, not one.

❌ G5 T1 P2 A1 L4

Living children are three, not four, because the fetal demise at 24 weeks does not count as living. Multiples increase the living count only if the infants survive.


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4 :

Hint : No bleeding + no heartbeat = missed

Correct Answers:

  • Missed abortion


Rationale :

🟣 A missed abortion occurs when the fetus has died but is retained in the uterus, and the client may have no vaginal bleeding, no cramping, and no cervical dilation, which matches this presentation.

🟣 At 15 weeks gestation, fetal heart tones should normally be detectable with a Doppler device; absence of a heartbeat strongly suggests fetal demise.

🟣 The cervix remaining closed (not dilated) further supports the diagnosis because no products of conception are being expelled.

🟣 Clients often report a sudden disappearance of pregnancy symptoms, but some may remain asymptomatic, making ultrasound findings critical for diagnosis.

🟣 Prompt evaluation and management are necessary to prevent complications such as infection or coagulation disorders from prolonged fetal retention.

❌ Ectopic pregnancy

An ectopic pregnancy typically presents earlier in gestation with unilateral pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding. By 15 weeks, an untreated ectopic pregnancy would likely have ruptured and caused severe symptoms.

❌ Incomplete abortion

An incomplete abortion involves partial expulsion of products of conception and is usually accompanied by vaginal bleeding and cervical dilation. This client denies bleeding and has a closed cervix.

❌ Threatened abortion

A threatened abortion involves vaginal bleeding with a closed cervix and a detectable fetal heartbeat. In this case, no fetal heartbeat is heard, making this diagnosis unlikely.


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5 :

Hint : Placenta = gas exchange, not fluid

Correct Answers:

  • "The amniotic fluid functions as a means of gas exchange."


Rationale :

🔵 Amniotic fluid does NOT function in gas exchange, and this statement reflects misunderstanding.

🔵 Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occur through the placenta via the umbilical cord, not through the amniotic fluid.

🔵 Amniotic fluid primarily provides thermal regulation, maintaining a stable intrauterine temperature to protect the fetus.

🔵 It also allows free fetal movement, which supports proper musculoskeletal development and joint formation.

🔵 Additionally, amniotic fluid acts as a protective cushion, absorbing external pressure and reducing trauma to the fetus.

❌ "The amniotic fluid helps maintain the fetal body temperature."

This statement is correct because amniotic fluid maintains a consistent intrauterine environment. Temperature regulation is one of its key protective functions.

❌ "The amniotic fluid allows for fetal musculoskeletal development."

This is accurate because fetal movement within the fluid promotes muscle tone and skeletal growth. Restricted fluid levels can impair limb and joint development.

❌ "The amniotic fluid cushions the fetus from trauma by outside forces."

This is correct because amniotic fluid absorbs shock and protects against mechanical injury. It serves as a protective buffer against abdominal pressure.


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6 :

For each of the following signs and symptoms select whether it is related or not related to an ectopic pregnancy. Select one answer in each row.


Signs/Symptoms Related Not related
Client history of abnormal spotting
A snowstorm pattern on a transvaginal ultrasound
Abdominal pain described as dull on one side of the lower abdomen
Persistent fever of 100.4
The sudden onset of a severe headache

Hint : Spotting + one-sided pain = suspect ectopic

Correct Answers

  • Client history of abnormal spotting [ Related ]
  • A snowstorm pattern on a transvaginal ultrasound [ Not related ]
  • Abdominal pain described as dull on one side of the lower abdomen [ Related ]
  • Persistent fever of 100.4 [ Not related ]
  • The sudden onset of a severe headache [ Not related ]

Rationale :

🟣 Client history of abnormal spotting → RELATED

🟣 Abnormal vaginal spotting is a classic early symptom of ectopic pregnancy, especially when accompanied by delayed menses.

🟣 Spotting occurs due to abnormal implantation of the fertilized ovum, most commonly in the fallopian tube, leading to unstable endometrial support.

🟣 It may be light, dark, or intermittent rather than heavy bleeding.

🟣 Any reproductive-age client with delayed menses and spotting must be evaluated for possible ectopic pregnancy.

🟣 A snowstorm pattern on a transvaginal ultrasound → NOT RELATED

🟣 A “snowstorm” appearance is characteristic of a molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole), not an ectopic pregnancy.

🟣 It represents swollen chorionic villi forming a grape-like cluster within the uterus.

🟣 Ectopic pregnancy typically shows no intrauterine gestational sac and may show an adnexal mass.

🟣 Therefore, this finding is not associated with ectopic implantation.

🟣 Abdominal pain described as dull on one side of the lower abdomen → RELATED

🟣 Unilateral lower abdominal pain is a hallmark sign of ectopic pregnancy due to tubal stretching or rupture.

🟣 The pain may begin as dull or cramp-like and can progress to sharp pain if rupture occurs.

🟣 The most common site is the fallopian tube, leading to one-sided discomfort.

🟣 This symptom combined with delayed menses strongly increases suspicion for ectopic pregnancy.

🟣 Persistent fever of 100.4°F → NOT RELATED

🟣 Ectopic pregnancy does not typically cause fever unless secondary infection or rupture with peritonitis occurs.

🟣 A persistent low-grade fever suggests infection rather than abnormal implantation.

🟣 Fever is more commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease or other infectious processes.

🟣 Therefore, this is not a typical presenting sign of ectopic pregnancy.

🟣 The sudden onset of a severe headache → NOT RELATED

🟣 A severe headache is not a typical symptom of ectopic pregnancy.

🟣 While severe internal bleeding may cause dizziness or syncope, headache is not characteristic.

🟣 This symptom would prompt evaluation for neurological or hypertensive conditions instead.

🟣 Therefore, it is not directly related to ectopic implantation.


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7 :

Hint : Bleeding + closed cervix + heartbeat = threatened

Correct Answers:

  • Threatened abortion


Rationale :

🔴 A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal spotting or light bleeding, a closed cervix, and the presence of fetal heart tones, all of which are present in this case.

🔴 At 10 weeks gestation, detection of a viable heartbeat on ultrasound indicates that the pregnancy is still ongoing despite the bleeding.

🔴 The cervix remaining closed (not dilated) is a key distinguishing factor because dilation would suggest progression toward pregnancy loss.

🔴 In threatened abortion, bleeding may resolve with rest and monitoring, and many pregnancies continue normally.

🔴 Therefore, mild spotting combined with a closed cervix and confirmed fetal cardiac activity most strongly supports the diagnosis of threatened abortion.

❌ Missed abortion

A missed abortion involves fetal demise with no expulsion of products of conception, and fetal heart tones are absent. This client has confirmed fetal heart sounds, making this diagnosis inconsistent.

❌ Inevitable abortion

Inevitable abortion involves cervical dilation with bleeding and usually cramping. A closed cervix rules out inevitability.

❌ Complete abortion

Complete abortion means all products of conception have been expelled and the uterus is empty. Fetal cardiac activity would not be present.


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8 :

Hint : Bacterial STI trio: GC, Syphilis, Chlamydia

Correct Answers:

  • Gonorrhea
  • Syphilis
  • Chlamydia


Rationale :

🟢 Gonorrhea

🟢 Gonorrhea is routinely screened during the initial prenatal visit because untreated infection can cause preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, and neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatorum).

🟢 It is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a bacterial sexually transmitted infection.

🟢 Screening is especially important in women under 25 or those with high-risk sexual behaviors.

🟢 Early detection allows treatment with appropriate antibiotics, reducing maternal and neonatal complications.

🟢 Syphilis

🟢 Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, is universally screened in pregnancy because untreated infection can lead to congenital syphilis, stillbirth, miscarriage, or neonatal death.

🟢 It is a bacterial STI detected through serologic testing (e.g., RPR or VDRL).

🟢 Early identification allows prompt treatment with penicillin, which significantly reduces fetal risk.

🟢 Screening is mandatory because vertical transmission can occur at any stage of pregnancy.

🟢 Chlamydia

🟢 Chlamydia, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, is routinely screened in early pregnancy due to its association with preterm birth, low birth weight, and neonatal conjunctivitis or pneumonia.

🟢 It is a bacterial infection often asymptomatic in women.

🟢 Early detection and treatment reduce maternal complications and prevent neonatal transmission.

🟢 Repeat screening may be recommended in high-risk populations.

❌ Candidiasis

Candidiasis is caused by a fungus (Candida species), not bacteria. It is not part of routine bacterial STI screening during the initial prenatal visit.

❌ Trichomoniasis

Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite (Trichomonas vaginalis), not bacteria. Routine universal screening is not performed unless symptoms or risk factors are present.


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9 :

Hint : Bleeding + open cervix = inevitable

Correct Answers:

  • Inevitable abortion


Rationale :

🔵 An inevitable abortion is diagnosed when there is vaginal bleeding and cramping accompanied by cervical dilation, even if no tissue has yet been expelled.

🔵 In this case, the client is 8 weeks pregnant, has moderate bleeding and cramping, and the cervix is dilated 3 cm, which indicates that pregnancy loss is in progress and cannot be stopped.

🔵 The key distinguishing feature is the open (dilated) cervix, signaling that expulsion of the products of conception is imminent.

🔵 Unlike a threatened abortion, where the cervix remains closed, dilation confirms that continuation of the pregnancy is no longer possible.

🔵 Therefore, bleeding + cramping + cervical dilation without passage of tissue most accurately describes an inevitable abortion.

❌ Missed abortion

A missed abortion involves fetal demise with retention of products of conception and a closed cervix. Bleeding is usually absent or minimal, and cervical dilation does not occur.

❌ Threatened abortion

A threatened abortion presents with bleeding but a closed cervix and no dilation. Once the cervix dilates, the diagnosis shifts to inevitable abortion.

❌ Complete abortion

A complete abortion occurs after all products of conception have been expelled and the cervix begins to close. There is typically passage of tissue and decreased bleeding afterward.


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10 :

Hint : Cottage cheese = Candida

Correct Answers:

  • candidiasis


Rationale :

🟣 Candidiasis (vulvovaginal yeast infection) is characterized by thick, white, “cottage cheese-like” discharge accompanied by intense vulvar itching, burning, and irritation.

🟣 It is caused by overgrowth of Candida albicans, a fungal organism that normally resides in the vaginal flora but proliferates when the environment becomes altered (e.g., antibiotics, diabetes, pregnancy).

🟣 The discharge is typically odorless and adheres to the vaginal walls, often associated with erythema and swelling of the vulva.

🟣 Clients frequently report burning with urination or intercourse due to inflamed vaginal tissues.

🟣 The classic combination of white clumpy discharge + severe pruritus makes candidiasis the most likely diagnosis.

❌ Bacterial vaginosis

Bacterial vaginosis presents with a thin, grayish-white discharge and a characteristic fishy odor, especially after intercourse. It usually does not cause intense itching or thick clumping.

❌ Trichomoniasis

Trichomoniasis produces a frothy, yellow-green discharge with a strong odor and may cause a “strawberry cervix.” The discharge is not thick and cottage cheese-like.

❌ Gonorrhea

Gonorrhea often causes purulent discharge but may also be asymptomatic. It does not typically produce thick white clumpy discharge with intense itching.


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Total Questions: 10

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