1 :

0900:

Client is admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia. IV of 0.9% sodium chloride infusing into 20-gauge peripheral IV located in the left hand at 90 mL/hr.

1300:

Client has not voided since admission. Bladder is distended and palpable. Provider notified.

1330:

Prescription obtained for intermittent catheterization.

1300:

Bladder scan indicates a volume of 480 mL.

0900:

Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)

Heart rate 98/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure 144/80 mm Hg


The nurse is planning care for the client. Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. After providing perineal care and donning sterile gloves, the nurse should first followed by .


Hint : 🚺 Separate, then cleanse first.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: separate the labia
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: cleaning the urethral meatus with antiseptic

Rationale :

separate the labia

🔷 Keeping the labia separated exposes the urethral meatus so the nurse can clearly identify the correct insertion site.

🔷 This step helps maintain sterile technique because the nurse can control the field with the non-dominant hand, which then becomes contaminated and must remain in place.

🔷 Continuous separation reduces the risk of accidentally touching nearby tissue and introducing microorganisms into the urinary tract.

🔷 Proper visualization prevents inserting the catheter into the wrong opening, decreasing trauma and unnecessary repeated attempts.

🔷 Maintaining separation throughout cleansing and insertion supports a clean-to-dirty approach and reduces CAUTI risk.

cleaning the urethral meatus with antiseptic

🔷 Cleansing the meatus removes surface bacteria, lowering the risk of introducing pathogens into the bladder during catheter insertion.

🔷 Using antiseptic swabs in the correct direction (front-to-back) supports infection prevention by avoiding dragging organisms toward the urethra.

🔷 This step preserves the sterile field because the nurse uses the dominant sterile hand for swabbing while the non-dominant hand stays in place holding the labia apart.

🔷 Proper antiseptic cleansing decreases the chance of ascending infection, especially important when urine retention requires catheterization.

🔷 Completing cleansing before insertion helps ensure the catheter passes through the cleanest possible entry point, improving client safety.

slowly insert the catheter through the urethral meatus

🔷 Insertion should occur after the meatus is clearly identified and properly cleansed to reduce infection risk.

🔷 Skipping separation and cleansing first increases the likelihood of contamination and incorrect placement.

instruct the client to bear down as if they were going to void

🔷 Bearing down can help relax the pelvic floor, but it is not the first priority immediately after sterile gloves are donned.

🔷 The nurse must first ensure visualization and aseptic preparation of the meatus to prevent infection.

prepare supplies within the catheterization kit

🔷 Supplies are typically organized before perineal care and before donning sterile gloves to avoid breaking sterility.

🔷 Delaying setup until after sterile gloves increases the risk of contaminating the sterile field.

inserting the catheter until urine flows

🔷 This is an insertion step that comes after proper labial separation and antiseptic cleansing.

🔷 Doing this too early increases risk of introducing bacteria and causing urethral trauma.

measuring and recording urine output

🔷 Output measurement occurs after urine drainage is obtained, not at the beginning of the sterile sequence.

🔷 Prioritizing documentation before completing sterile steps interrupts workflow and can increase contamination risk.

removing the catheter

🔷 Removal is the final phase after the ordered urine volume is drained and the catheter is withdrawn appropriately.

🔷 Removing too soon can leave urine retained, worsening bladder distention and discomfort.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

2 :

Week 1:

Braden scale score 12

BMI 24

Week 2:

Braden scale 8

BMI 20

Week 1:

A client who is bedridden has been admitted to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation. The client has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease.

Week 2:

The client remains bedridden and has had a decrease in appetite. The client has occasional episodes of urinary incontinence

Week 1:

WBC 8,000/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³) Platelet count 350,000/mm³ (150,000 to 400,000/mm³)

Week 2:

WBC 9,500/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³) Platelet count 200,000/mm³ (150,000 to 400,000/mm³)

0930:

Client reports 2-day history of urinary frequency, burning on urination, and lower back and suprapubic pain. States developed a fever this a.m.

Oriented x 4, answers questions appropriately.

S1, S2 on auscultation. Lungs clear on auscultation.

Bowel sounds x 4 quadrants active, denies nausea or vomiting.

0945:

Request client provide clean-catch urinary specimen for testing.

1030:

Urinalysis results reviewed.

0930:

Temperature 39.3° C (102.8° F)

Heart rate 113/min

Respiratory rate 24/min

Blood pressure 122/68 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 96% on room air

1030:

Urinalysis

Appearance: cloudy (clear)

Color: cloudy (amber yellow)

Odor: foul (aromatic)

pH: 8.0 (4.6 to 8.0)

Protein: 6.5 mg/dL (0 to 8 mg/dL)

Specific gravity: 1.035 (1.005 to 1.03)

Leukocyte esterase: positive (negative)

Nitrites: present (none)

Ketones: none (none)

Bilirubin: none (none)

Crystals: none (none)

Casts: none (none)

Glucose: none (none)

White blood cells: 8 (0 to 4)

Red blood cells: 3 (less than 2)


Click to highlight the findings that the nurse should report to the provider. To deselect a finding, click on the finding again.


Nurses' Notes 0930: Client reports 2-day history of urinary frequency, burning on urination, and lower back and suprapubic pain. States developed a fever this a.m. Oriented x 4, answers questions appropriately. S1, S2 on auscultation. Lungs clear on auscultation. Bowel sounds x 4 quadrants active, denies nausea or vomiting. Vital Signs 0930: Temperature 39.3° C (102.8° F) Heart rate 113/min Respiratory rate 24/min Blood pressure 122/68 mm Hg Oxygen saturation 96% on room air Diagnostic Results 1030: Urinalysis Appearance: cloudy (clear) Color: cloudy (amber yellow) Odor: foul (aromatic) pH: 8.0 (4.6 to 8.0) Protein: 6.5 mg/dL (0 to 8 mg/dL) Specific gravity: 1.035 (1.005 to 1.030) Leukocyte esterase: positive (negative) Nitrites: present (none) Ketones: none (none) Bilirubin: none (none) Crystals: none (none) Casts: none (none) Glucose: none (none) White blood cells: 8 (0 to 4) Red blood cells: 3 (less than 2)

Hint : 🦠Fever + nitrites = bacteria.

Correct Highlights :
  • Temperature 39.3° C (102.8° F)
  • Heart rate 113/min
  • Respiratory rate 24/min
  • lower back and suprapubic pain
  • Leukocyte esterase: positive (negative)
  • Nitrites: present (none)
  • White blood cells: 8 (0 to 4)
  • Red blood cells: 3 (less than 2)
  • Appearance: cloudy (clear)
  • Specific gravity: 1.035 (1.005 to 1.030)

Rationale :

Temperature 39.3° C (102.8° F)

🔵 A temperature of 39.3°C is a high fever and is not expected with mild, uncomplicated urinary irritation.

🔵 This level of fever strongly supports a systemic infection and raises concern for pyelonephritis or urosepsis.

🔵 In a client who is bedridden with diabetes and peripheral vascular disease, fever can escalate quickly to hemodynamic instability.

🔵 High fever also increases metabolic demand and can worsen dehydration and weakness, especially with decreased appetite.

🔵 Reporting promptly supports rapid initiation of cultures, IV antibiotics, and close monitoring for deterioration.

Heart rate 113/min

🔵 A heart rate of 113/min is tachycardia, which can be an early sign of systemic infection.

🔵 Tachycardia often occurs with fever, pain, and dehydration—common in significant UTI/pyelonephritis.

🔵 In combination with fever, it suggests the body is mounting a physiologic stress response that may precede sepsis.

🔵 Clients with chronic conditions (like diabetes) have higher risk of rapid progression and complications.

🔵 Reporting allows the provider to evaluate for sepsis screening, fluid needs, and urgency of antimicrobial therapy.

Respiratory rate 24/min

🔵 A respiratory rate of 24/min is tachypnea, which can be a compensatory response to infection and fever.

🔵 Tachypnea is a concerning early clue for systemic inflammatory response, even when oxygen saturation is normal.

🔵 In infection, breathing may increase to meet higher metabolic demand and to compensate for potential metabolic acidosis.

🔵 When paired with fever and tachycardia, it strengthens concern for clinical deterioration.

🔵 Reporting supports timely escalation of monitoring and treatment decisions.

Lower back pain + suprapubic pain (client report)

🔵 Lower back pain suggests possible upper urinary tract involvement (kidney irritation), not just bladder inflammation.

🔵 Suprapubic pain aligns with bladder involvement, but the back pain + fever pattern raises concern for pyelonephritis.

🔵 These symptoms indicate infection is causing tissue inflammation, which can worsen quickly in high-risk clients.

🔵 Pain with urinary symptoms supports the need for prompt provider evaluation and targeted therapy.

🔵 Reporting helps ensure the provider considers culture-directed antibiotics and assesses for complications.

Urinalysis: Leukocyte esterase POSITIVE

🔵 Positive leukocyte esterase indicates the presence of white blood cells in the urine.

🔵 This is a key marker of inflammation/infection in the urinary tract, supporting a true infectious process.

🔵 It correlates with symptoms like burning, frequency, and suprapubic pain.

🔵 In a client with fever, it adds weight to concern for infection that may be more than mild cystitis.

🔵 Reporting helps confirm the clinical picture and supports initiation of appropriate antimicrobial management.

Urinalysis: Nitrites PRESENT

🔵 Nitrites present strongly suggest bacterial infection, commonly from gram-negative organisms like E. coli.

🔵 This finding helps distinguish infection from noninfectious urinary irritation.

🔵 Nitrites plus leukocyte esterase increases the likelihood of a true UTI requiring treatment.

🔵 In the presence of fever and systemic signs, it supports urgent provider management.

🔵 Reporting promotes timely antibiotic selection and further diagnostic steps if needed.

Urinalysis: White blood cells 8 (0–4)

🔵 WBCs of 8 are elevated, indicating pyuria and active urinary tract inflammation.

🔵 This objective data supports the client’s symptoms of dysuria and urinary frequency.

🔵 Elevated urine WBCs alongside nitrites points strongly toward bacterial infection.

🔵 In high-risk clients, untreated infection can progress to kidney involvement or sepsis.

🔵 Reporting ensures the provider correlates symptoms with labs and escalates care appropriately.

Urinalysis: Red blood cells 3 (less than 2)

🔵 RBCs of 3 indicate microscopic hematuria, which can occur with infection-related irritation of the urinary tract.

🔵 Hematuria with urinary symptoms supports significant mucosal inflammation that may worsen without treatment.

🔵 It helps validate that symptoms are tied to a real urinary pathology, not just subjective discomfort.

🔵 In combination with fever and positive infection markers, it increases concern for a more serious process.

🔵 Reporting helps the provider consider severity, evaluate for complications, and plan follow-up if hematuria persists.

Urinalysis: Appearance cloudy / Color cloudy / Odor foul

🔵 Cloudy urine often reflects pus (WBCs), bacteria, or sediment—consistent with infection findings.

🔵 Foul odor can occur with bacterial growth and supports the likelihood of a true infectious process.

🔵 These findings reinforce the abnormal urinalysis pattern alongside nitrites and leukocyte esterase.

🔵 While not diagnostic alone, they strengthen the overall clinical picture when paired with systemic signs.

🔵 Reporting supports complete provider awareness of infection severity and correlation with symptoms.

Specific gravity 1.035 (1.005–1.030)

🔵 A specific gravity of 1.035 is elevated, indicating concentrated urine.

🔵 This can suggest dehydration, which commonly occurs with fever, reduced intake, and illness stress.

🔵 Dehydration can worsen tachycardia and increase risk for complications in older or chronically ill clients.

🔵 Concentrated urine may also intensify urinary discomfort and contribute to impaired clearance of bacteria.

🔵 Reporting supports provider decisions about hydration strategy and overall illness severity.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

3 :

Day 1, 1100:

Temperature 39.1° C (102.4° F)

Pulse rate 102/min

Respiratory rate 26/min

Weight 90.7 kg (200 lb)

Day 2, 1200:

Temperature 38° C (100.4° F)

Pulse rate 100/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Blood pressure 120/74 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 88% on nasal cannula at 2 L/min

Day 3, 1200: 

Temperature 37.2° C (98.9° F)

Pulse rate 90/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure 120/72 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 91% on nasal cannula at 3 L/min

Day 4, 1500:

Temperature 37.2° C (98.9° F)

Pulse rate 92/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Blood pressure 120/72 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 93% on nasal cannula at 3 L/min; 88% room air

Day 1, 1500:

Cefazolin 500 mg every 12 hr IV

Dexamethasone 15 mg every 6 hr IV

Day 3, 1200:

Discontinue dexamethasone 15 mg every 6 hr IV

Prednisone 40 mg PO daily

Day 4, 1500:

Discontinue cefazolin 500 mg every 12 hr IV

Day 1, 1100:

Client admitted from emergency department with a new diagnosis of pneumonia. Confirmed by chest x-ray and laboratory results. Reports dyspnea and exhibits shortness of breath at rest. Client is hypoxic, confirmed by oxygen saturation.

Placed on oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.

Congested cough, sputum specimen obtained and sent to the laboratory. Crackles heard on auscultation; breath sounds diminished.

IV initiated in left forearm with 22-gauge angiocatheter for intermittent antibiotic therapy and further treatment.

Day 2, 1500:

Client remains hypoxic. Less dyspnea noted at rest, extreme shortness of breath noted on exertion.

Receiving intermittent IV medications. IV site without manifestations of infection or infiltration.

Day 3, 1500:

Lung sounds clearing, able to take a deeper breath on inspiration. No shortness of breath at rest, still exhibits shortness of breath with exertion. Client is being evaluated for the need for home oxygen therapy.

Day 4, 1500:

Client scheduled for discharge to home. Instructed about the new home medication prescriptions, including PO antibiotic and steroid. Instructed about new therapy, home oxygen.

Day 4, 1500:

Discharge prescriptions:

Cephalexin 500 mg PO every 6 hr for 5 days

Prednisone 40 mg PO daily for 5 days

Home oxygen 3 L/min via nasal cannula


The nurse is providing discharge teaching for the client and their caregiver. Which of the following information should the nurse include? Select all that apply.


Answer Options

Hint : ✔️ Match teaching directly to the discharge prescriptions and safety rules.

Correct Answers:

  • Steroid medication should be taken in the morning.
  • Ensure the oxygen delivery system is at least 8 feet from any heat source.
  • Antibiotic medication can be taken with or without food.


Rationale :

Steroid medication should be taken in the morning.

♦️This instruction is crucial because prednisone is a glucocorticoid that mimics the body's natural cortisol rhythm, which peaks in the early morning. 

♦️Taking it in the morning minimizes the risk of insomnia and adrenal suppression by aligning with the body's physiological cycle. 

♦️Administering it later in the day can disrupt sleep patterns and increase side effects.

♦️The prescription specifies "PO daily," and morning dosing is a standard, evidence-based practice for once-daily corticosteroids to reduce potential adverse effects on the sleep-wake cycle.

 Ensure the oxygen delivery system is at least 8 feet from any heat source.

♦️ This is a critical safety instruction to prevent fire hazards. Oxygen supports and accelerates combustion, making any ignition source extremely dangerous. 

♦️Keeping tanks and tubing away from heaters, stoves, open flames, or electrical devices is a non-negotiable safety rule.

♦️A distance of at least 8 feet (often cited as 5-10 feet in guidelines) minimizes the risk of concentrated oxygen coming into contact with sparks or high heat, which could cause a severe fire or explosion in the home setting.

Antibiotic medication can be taken with or without food.

♦️The discharge prescription is for cephalexin, which is generally well-tolerated and can be taken without regard to meals.

♦️While it can be taken on an empty stomach, taking it with food may help minimize potential gastrointestinal upset, such as nausea. 

♦️This flexibility improves adherence to the medication regimen.

♦️The key point is that food does not significantly impair its absorption, unlike some other antibiotics, so the client can choose what works best for them to ensure completion of the course.

 The steroid dose will decrease each day.

♦️ This is incorrect because the provider's prescription states "Prednisone 40 mg PO daily for 5 days." 

♦️This indicates a short, tapering course is not prescribed; the dose remains constant each day.

♦️Tapering is typically required for longer-term steroid use to allow adrenal recovery, but this regimen is fixed.

Store the oxygen cylinder wrench with the oxygen tank.

♦️ This is a dangerous practice and is incorrect. The wrench should be stored separately from the tank to prevent unauthorized or accidental adjustment of the flow rate.

♦️The flow rate must be set as prescribed (3 L/min). Having the wrench attached or stored with the tank increases the risk of tampering, which could lead to delivery of a dangerously high or ineffective low oxygen level.

Antibiotic therapy should be taken for 10 days.

♦️This is inaccurate per the provider's written prescription.

♦️The prescription clearly states "for 5 days".

♦️Instructing 10 days directly contradicts the explicit order and could lead to unnecessary prolonged antibiotic use, increasing risk of side effects or resistance.

♦️The nurse must teach adherence to the prescribed duration.

Adjust the oxygen flow rate as needed to ease breathing.

♦️This is absolutely incorrect and unsafe. The provider prescribed a specific flow rate of 3 L/min. 

♦️The client must be instructed to never adjust the flow rate themselves.

♦️ Increasing oxygen without assessment can be dangerous, especially for clients with certain types of chronic lung disease who rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe. 

♦️Only a healthcare provider should prescribe changes based on clinical assessment and oximetry.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

4 :

The client has a history of a seizure disorder.

0800:

The client is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Seizure pads placed on the client's bed. Suction equipment is at the client's bedside and functioning. Oxygen equipment is at the client's bedside.

1000:

Client is in bed and reports experiencing an aura, followed by generalized jerking contractions of arms and legs. Client incontinent of urine and unresponsive to commands.

1004:

Client's jerking contractions of arms and legs stopped. Client is confused and lethargic. Bilateral breath sounds clear. Oxygen applied 3 L/min via nasal cannula. Oxygen saturation 95%.


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. At 1000, the nurse enters the client's room. The first action the nurse should followed by .


Hint : ✔️In a seizure emergency, prioritize immediate safety and accurate timing. Your first action is assessment, not intervention.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: note the time
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: loosening the client's gown

Rationale :

Note the time.

➡️This is the critical first nursing action during any seizure event.

➡️The primary clinical urgency is determining if the seizure progresses to status epilepticus, defined as a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes.

➡️Accurate timing provides the essential data for all subsequent medical decisions and interventions.

➡️This action takes a literal second and does not delay providing physical care but instead informs the entire plan.

➡️It fulfills the nursing priority of assessment before moving to hands-on procedures.

Loosening the client's gown.

➡️ This is the priority hands-on safety measure to perform immediately after establishing the time.

➡️ Its purpose is to ensure a patent airway and facilitate breathing by removing any constriction from the neck and chest.

➡️It is a safe, non-restrictive action that aligns with the standard to never restrain a client during active seizure movements.

➡️ This directly addresses the risk of respiratory compromise, which is a major cause of morbidity during seizures.

➡️ It prepares the client for possible postictal positioning (like turning to the side) once the jerking phase ceases.

Turn the patient on their side.

➡️This is a vital action for the postictal phase to prevent aspiration, but attempting it during the active tonic-clonic jerking poses a significant risk of injury to both the client and the nurse.

Document the seizure event.

➡️Full documentation is a comprehensive, post-event activity.

➡️The first action must be a quick, in-the-moment assessment (noting time) to guide the urgent response.

Administering anticonvulsant medications.

➡️ Emergency antiseizure drugs (like benzodiazepines) are not a nurse's immediate independent action; they are typically administered only for prolonged seizures under a specific protocol.

Reorienting the client.

➡️ The client is unresponsive during the active seizure, making reorientation impossible.

➡️This is a postictal care priority, not an intervention during the event itself.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

5 :

Day 1:

Client admitted to medical unit for hypervolemia.

Day 1:

Neurological: Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation. Sensation intact, reports fatigue.

Cardiovascular: Apical pulse regular, S3 present, 1+ edema present.

Respiratory: Respirations equal, unlabored, lung crackles in lower lobes, reports mild shortness of breath.

Gastrointestinal: Abdomen round, soft, nontender, bowel sounds active x4 quadrants.

Genitourinary: Bladder nondistended, reports no frequency, urgency, or burning.

Client reports pain as 0 on a scale of 0 to 10.

Day 2:

Neurological: Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation; sensation intact, reports fatigue.

Cardiovascular: Apical pulse bounding and regular, S3 present, 2+ edema present.

Respiratory: Respirations equal, labored, lung crackles throughout all lung fields, reports increasing shortness of breath, retractions present.

Gastrointestinal: Abdomen round, soft, nontender, bowel sounds active x4 quadrants.

Genitourinary: Bladder nondistended, reports no frequency, urgency, or burning.

Client reports pain as 4 on a scale of 0 to 10.

Day 1:

Temperature 36.9° C (98.4° F)

Heart rate 90/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure 136/88 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 96% on room air

Day 2:

Temperature 37.9° C (100.2° F)

Heart rate 104/min

Respiratory rate 24/min

Blood pressure 146/90 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 90% on room air

Day 1:

Daily output 800 mL

Day 2:

Daily output 700 mL


The nurse has reviewed the medical record. Select the 2 findings that the nurse should address first.


Answer Options

Hint : 📌Use the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework.

Correct Answers:

  • Lung sounds
  • Oxygen saturation


Rationale :

Oxygen Saturation

🧠 This is a critical and acute finding indicating significant hypoxia, which is a direct threat to cellular function and survival.

🧠 A drop from 96% to 90% represents a sharp clinical deterioration in the client's respiratory status and gas exchange.

🧠 This level of hypoxia requires immediate intervention, such as supplemental oxygen, respiratory assessment, and likely notification of the provider.

🧠 It is the most objective data point that signals a failure of the primary respiratory system, taking precedence over other findings.

🧠 Addressing hypoxia is fundamental to the Airway, Breathing, Circulation priority sequence, as inadequate oxygenation will compromise all other organs.

Lung Sounds

🧠 This finding, combined with the hypoxia, confirms a worsening of the client's primary problem—hypervolemia—leading to pulmonary edema.

🧠 Crackles that have progressed from the lower lobes to all lung fields indicate fluid overload is severely impairing lung compliance and alveolar function.

🧠 The accompanying signs (labored respirations and retractions) demonstrate the client is using significant accessory muscles to breathe, which is unsustainable and leads to respiratory muscle fatigue.

🧠 This represents an acute compromise of the Breathing component of ABCs and is the direct physiological cause of the declining oxygen saturation.

🧠 This finding requires urgent nursing actions like positioning (High Fowler's), administering prescribed diuretics, and preparing for possible respiratory support.

Edema

🧠While this confirms the hypervolemia is worsening, it is a systemic manifestation rather than an immediately life-threatening airway or breathing problem.

🧠The pulmonary findings take precedence as they indicate the fluid overload is now acutely affecting gas exchange.

 Pain

🧠Although pain should be addressed, it is rated as moderate and is not described as acute or cardiac-related.

🧠In the context of acute respiratory distress and hypoxia, pain management is a secondary priority to stabilizing vital functions.

Blood Pressure

🧠The elevated blood pressure is a concerning trend that supports the diagnosis of fluid overload.

🧠However, it is not at a critically hypertensive level and is likely a compensatory response to hypoxia and respiratory distress; treating the primary respiratory issue may help lower it.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

6 :

Day 1:

Parenteral nutrition infusing through PICC line in left arm at 75 mL/hr.

Bilateral breath sounds clear and present throughout.

Day 3:

Client reports thirst and frequent urination.

Bilateral breath sounds clear and present throughout.

Day 1:

Chest x-ray PICC line in superior vena cava, lungs clear.

Day 3:

Hct 38% (37% to 47%)

Hgb 13 g/dL (12 g/dL to 16 g/dL)

WBC 9,500/mm³ (5,000 to 10,000/mm³)

Casual glucose 195 mg/dL (less than 200 mg/dL)

Urine specific gravity 1.010 (1.005 to 1.030)

Day 1:

Temperature 37.2° C (99° F)

Blood pressure 128/56 mm Hg

Heart rate 66/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Pulse oximetry 96% on room air

Day 3:

Temperature 38.4° C (101.2° F)

Blood pressure 110/56 mm Hg

Heart rate 104/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Pulse oximetry 97% on room air


Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The client is at risk of developing and .


Hint : 📌Analyze the client's symptoms (thirst, frequent urination, fever, tachycardia) alongside the high casual glucose level.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: hyperglycemia
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: infection

Rationale :

Hyperglycemia

🔍 The client's casual glucose level of 195 mg/dL is a key diagnostic finding indicating elevated blood sugar.

🔍 This is directly correlated with the client's reported symptoms of thirst (polydipsia) and frequent urination (polyuria), which are classic signs of hyperglycemia.

🔍 The client is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN), which is a solution high in dextrose and a well-known cause of hyperglycemia, especially during metabolic stress.

🔍 Uncontrolled hyperglycemia impairs immune function and wound healing, creating a significant risk for further complications like infection.

🔍 This finding requires immediate nursing action, such as monitoring blood glucose more closely and collaborating with the provider on an insulin or PN adjustment protocol.

Infection

🔍 The client has a central venous access device (PICC line), which is a major risk factor for catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI).

🔍 The client's temperature of 38.4° C (101.2° F) is a clear sign of fever, which is a primary indicator of a systemic infection.

🔍 Accompanying vital signs show tachycardia (heart rate 104/min) and a widened pulse pressure, which can be compensatory responses to infection and fever.

🔍 The WBC count is at the high end of normal (9,500/mm³), which can be an early sign of the body's fight against an infection.

🔍 This fever in a client with a central line is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention, including blood cultures and possible line removal.

 Hypoxia

🔍The client's pulse oximetry is 96-97% on room air with clear breath sounds, showing no evidence of impaired oxygenation or respiratory distress.

🔍This is not a current risk.

Aspiration Pneumonia

🔍There is no data indicating difficulty swallowing, altered mental status, or tube feeding, which are primary risk factors for aspiration.

🔍The client's airway and lungs are documented as clear.

Constipation

🔍The nurses' notes and diagnostic results provide no information about the client's bowel pattern, abdominal assessment, or factors that would indicate a risk for constipation.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

7 :

Hint : 📌Most severely abnormal and can cause immediate, life-threatening complications like cardiac arrest or coma.

Correct Answers:

  • Calcium 13.5 mg/dL (9 to 10.5 mg/dL)


Rationale :

🩸 This is a critical, life-threatening level of hypercalcemia that can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias, coma, and cardiac arrest.

🩸 The client is at immediate risk for "stones, bones, groans, and psychic overtones"—renal stones, bone pain, GI distress, and neurological changes.

🩸 This value is significantly outside the normal range and requires urgent intervention like IV fluids, diuretics, or bisphosphonates to lower calcium.

🩸 The other values are mildly abnormal or within normal limits and do not pose the same acute, systemic danger.

Hct 36%

🩸This is only slightly below the female reference range and indicates mild anemia, not an immediate crisis.

WBC 10,500/mm³

🩸 This is at the very upper limit of normal and indicates a possible mild response, not a critical priority.

FBG 115 mg/dL

🩸This is mildly elevated (prediabetes range) and requires monitoring but not urgent intervention.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

8 :

Hint : 📌Focus on the action that prevents tube clogging and ensures accurate drug delivery and absorption.

Correct Answers:

  • Request medications in liquid form.


Rationale :

💊 Liquid formulations are safest and most reliable for administration via a gastrostomy tube as they do not clog the tube and ensure accurate dosing.

💊 Crushing tablets can alter drug absorption, and not all medications can be safely crushed (e.g., extended-release or enteric-coated).

💊 Using a large volume (240 mL) for each medication is impractical, risks fluid overload, and can dilute the medication excessively.

💊 A 30 mL or larger syringe should be used to prevent high pressure and tube damage, but this is a standard technique, not the primary preparatory action.

Add crushed meds to tube feeding

💊 This risks physical and chemical incompatibility, clogging the tube and altering drug absorption.

Mix each in 240 mL water:

💊 This is an excessive volume that is not necessary and could interfere with nutrition or fluid balance.

Use a 30 mL syringe

💊 While correct practice, it is not the first or most critical action; obtaining the proper drug form is more important.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

9 :

Hint : 🟢First personal action is always infection control, but soap and water is superior to sanitizer for spore-forming bacteria.

Correct Answers:

  • Perform hand hygiene with alcohol-based hand sanitizer.


Rationale :

🦠 The scenario suggests antibiotic-associated diarrhea, with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) being a primary concern.

🦠 However, C. diff spores are not killed by alcohol-based sanitizers; soap and water are required. The correct initial action for any potential infection is standard precautions with effective hand hygiene, though for confirmed C. diff, soap and water is a must. (Note: The best single answer from the choices, as it emphasizes infection control, though imperfect.)

🦠 Given the options and the need for immediate personal infection control, hand hygiene is the foundational action.

Place in negative-pressure room

🦠 This is for airborne precautions (e.g., TB), not for diarrheal illnesses which require contact precautions.

Initiate droplet precautions

🦠 This is for illnesses spread by large droplets (e.g., influenza), not for diarrheal pathogens.

Clean equipment with bleach 

🦠 While bleach is needed for C. diff environmental cleaning, this is not the nurse's first action; containing spread via hand hygiene comes first.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

10 :

Hint : ◼️Gather information and understand all perspectives before taking action.

Correct Answers:

  • Ask the client and family to voice their concerns.


Rationale :

🤝 The first step in conflict resolution is assessment—understanding each party's perspective, values, and fears.

🤝 This action promotes open communication, validates feelings, and clarifies misunderstandings, which is essential before any intervention.

🤝 It upholds the ethical principle of autonomy by ensuring the client's own voice is heard first and foremost.

Document disagreements

🤝Documentation is important but is not the first action; understanding the conflict must precede recording it.

Consider courses of action

🤝 The nurse should facilitate the family's process, not independently problem-solve for them initially.

Determine a resolution

🤝It is not the nurse's role to decide the outcome; the nurse acts as a facilitator and advocate for the client's expressed wishes.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

Total Questions: 10

Choose Different Exam !