Question

A 76-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by his daughter, who reports that her father's memory "gets worse suddenly, then stabilizes for a while before getting worse again." The nurse reviews his chart and notes a diagnosis of vascular dementia. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to help slow the patient's cognitive decline?

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Emphasize strict control of blood pressure, blood glucose, and cholesterol levels.

Rationale :

✅ Vascular dementia is caused by reduced cerebral blood flow from strokes/TIAs and chronic small-vessel disease, so the biggest “slow-down” strategy is lowering ongoing vascular injury.

✅ Tight control of blood pressure reduces the risk of new ischemic events that worsen cognition in the classic stepwise pattern (sudden decline → plateau → sudden decline).

✅ Managing type 2 diabetes helps prevent microvascular damage that accelerates white-matter changes and cognitive impairment.

✅ Controlling cholesterol helps decrease atherosclerosis and lowers the chance of additional infarcts that compound cognitive loss.

✅ This intervention targets the root cause of vascular dementia progression—preventing further vascular insults—so it is the most appropriate nursing priority to slow decline.

Encourage mental stimulation exercises such as puzzles and reading daily.

✅ Mental stimulation can support function and coping, but it does not directly prevent new strokes that drive vascular dementia progression.

✅It’s supportive care, not the most effective intervention for slowing stepwise decline in vascular dementia.

Recommend complete bedrest to reduce cerebral oxygen demand.

✅Bedrest increases risk for deconditioning, DVT, pneumonia, and delirium, which can worsen cognition and functional status.

✅It does not protect the brain from future vascular events and may actually harm outcomes.

Administer cholinesterase inhibitors to reverse cognitive impairment.

✅These drugs may provide modest symptom benefit in some dementias, but they do not reverse cognitive loss.

✅ In vascular dementia, the priority is vascular risk control to prevent additional ischemic damage.

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Answer 2

Correct Answers:

Potassium

Rationale :

✅ Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urine output by blocking sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle, causing loss of electrolytes.

✅ A major adverse effect is hypokalemia because potassium is pulled into the urine when sodium and water are excreted aggressively.

✅ Low potassium increases risk for dangerous dysrhythmias, especially in heart failure patients who may already be electrically unstable.

✅ Hypokalemia can also cause muscle weakness, cramps, fatigue, and can worsen tolerance to activity in HF clients.

✅ Monitoring serum potassium guides nursing actions such as dietary teaching, supplementation, and provider notification to prevent complications.

Albumin.

✅Albumin reflects nutritional status/liver function and can influence fluid shifts, but it is not the key electrolyte loss caused by loop diuretics.

✅It does not directly reflect furosemide’s primary safety risk like potassium does.

Bicarbonate.

✅Furosemide can contribute to metabolic alkalosis in some cases, but this is not the most essential routine lab priority compared with potassium.

✅The immediate high-risk complication to prevent is hypokalemia-related dysrhythmia.

Cortisol.

✅Cortisol is unrelated to the pharmacologic action of furosemide and is not a standard monitoring parameter for loop diuretic therapy.

✅It would not help detect the most common and dangerous furosemide complication.

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Answer 3

Correct Answers:

“It's not a big deal it my cat scratches my hand as long as I keep It clean."

Rationale :

✅ Raynaud’s involves vasospasm of small arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the fingers and toes, especially with cold or stress.

✅ Any hand injury (like scratches) is higher risk because poor perfusion slows healing and increases likelihood of skin breakdown/ulceration.

✅ Minor trauma can escalate to infection when tissue oxygenation is reduced, even if the wound looks small at first.

✅ Clients should protect extremities from injury, cold exposure, and constriction, because these trigger vasospasm and worsen ischemia.

✅ The statement minimizes risk, showing the client doesn’t fully understand the importance of preventing trauma to poorly perfused digits.

“I will try to anticipate and avoid stressful situations when possible.”

✅This is correct because stress triggers sympathetic vasoconstriction, worsening Raynaud’s attacks.

✅Reducing stress lowers frequency and severity of vasospasm episodes.

“I will complete the smoking cessation program I started.”

✅This is correct because nicotine causes vasoconstriction and worsens ischemia in Raynaud’s.

✅Smoking cessation is one of the most important lifestyle changes to reduce attacks and complications.

“I will wear gloves when removing food from the freezer.”

✅This is correct because cold exposure is a primary trigger for vasospasm.

✅Gloves help maintain warmth and reduce attack onset.

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Answer 4

Correct Answers:

A patient who will need short term enteral feedings for 2-5 days.

Rationale :

✅ A Dobhoff (small-bore feeding tube) is typically used for short-term enteral feeding, often when a patient needs temporary nutrition support.

✅ Its small diameter improves comfort but limits its usefulness for thick medications or large volumes of crushed pills.

✅ Short-term use matches the risk profile because nasal tubes can cause nasal irritation, sinus issues, and dislodgement over time.

✅ For longer durations, more stable access (like PEG/PEJ) is usually preferred to reduce complications and improve durability.

✅ Choosing SBFT for 2–5 days aligns best with its intended use: temporary nutrition delivery with less invasiveness.

A patient who will require enteral feedings into the gastric area or the stomach.

✅ This is too broad and does not specifically match the key distinguishing factor—duration and medication limitations.

✅ Many tubes deliver to the stomach, but Dobhoff is mainly selected for short-term feeding and often post-pyloric placement depending on need.

A patient requiring numerous medications to be delivered via the feeding tube.

✅ Small-bore tubes clog more easily, and giving many meds increases the risk of tube obstruction.

✅ Patients with heavy medication needs often require a tube better suited for medication administration.

A patient who will receive long-term enteral feedings for approximately 6 weeks.

✅ Nasal small-bore tubes are not ideal long-term because of dislodgement and mucosal injury risks.

✅ Longer-term feeding usually calls for gastrostomy/jejunostomy access.

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Answer 5

Correct Answers:

Since Prilosec decreases gastric acid production, protective gut flora may be lost which puts you at a higher risk for C. Diff.

Rationale :

✅ Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces stomach acid by blocking the H⁺/K⁺ ATPase in parietal cells.

✅ Lower gastric acidity reduces the body’s natural defense against ingested pathogens, increasing risk for GI infections.

✅ PPIs are associated with increased risk of C. difficile infection, especially with prolonged use or hospitalization.

✅ The nurse should teach the patient to report watery diarrhea, fever, abdominal cramping, particularly after antibiotics or during long PPI therapy.

✅ This teaching is clinically important because it focuses on a serious preventable complication linked to acid suppression therapy.

Prilosec may cause tardive dyskinesia…

✅ Tardive dyskinesia is linked to dopamine-blocking antipsychotics, not PPIs.

✅ This teaching would misinform the patient and distract from real PPI risks.

Prilosec neutralizes the acid…and should be taken after meals.

✅ PPIs do not neutralize acid like antacids; they decrease acid production.

✅ They are often most effective when taken before meals (commonly before breakfast).

Prilosec is primarily used for urinary retention…

✅ Omeprazole is not a urinary retention drug; it is used for GERD, ulcers, and acid-related disorders.

✅ This statement is incorrect and would confuse the medication purpose.

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Answer 6

Correct Answers:

Place a sign on the patient's door that reads, "No lab draws, IVs, or BP to right arm."

Rationale :

✅ A new AV access is at high risk for thrombosis, bleeding, and trauma, so the priority is preventing anything that compresses or injures the site.

✅ Blood pressure cuffs can occlude blood flow, increasing risk of clotting and loss of access patency.

✅ IV starts and lab draws can cause vessel damage or infection risk in the access arm, threatening long-term dialysis use.

✅ Clear signage protects the access by alerting all staff across shifts, preventing accidental use of the arm.

✅ This intervention is a high-impact nursing safeguard that preserves patency and integrity of the newly revised shunt.

Auscultate for the thrill and feel for the bruit…

✅ The correct assessment is feel for thrill and auscultate for bruit, but the option reverses them, making it inaccurate.

✅ Also, assessment is important, but preventing compression/trauma is the best action to protect patency.

Measure BP in both right and left arms…

✅ Measuring BP on the access arm risks compressing the shunt and causing clot formation.

✅ BP should be taken on the non-access arm unless contraindicated.

Apply a snug compression wrap and elevate the right arm above heart level.

✅ A snug wrap can reduce blood flow and increase thrombosis risk in the access.

✅ Elevation may help swelling, but compression that threatens flow is unsafe for a fresh access.

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Answer 7

Correct Answers:

Meningioma brain tumors are slow-growing and rarely metastasize.

Rationale :

✅ Meningiomas arise from the meninges and are most often benign and slow-growing, which is important for patient reassurance and planning.

✅ Because they grow gradually, symptoms often develop slowly and may relate to compression of nearby brain tissue rather than aggressive invasion.

✅ Most meningiomas are localized and rarely metastasize, so widespread cancer-type spread is not expected in typical cases.

✅ Treatment is commonly surgical resection when accessible, and some patients may receive radiation if the tumor is not fully removable or recurs.

✅ Teaching the slow-growing nature helps patients understand why monitoring, planned surgery, and follow-up imaging are often used instead of immediate systemic cancer therapy.

Chemotherapy is almost always required to treat meningioma brain tumors.

✅ Chemotherapy is not usually first-line for meningiomas because most are benign and treated with surgery ± radiation.

✅ Saying it is “almost always required” misrepresents typical management.

Metastasis of meningiomas is common and treatment will be extensive.

✅ Metastasis is uncommon in meningiomas, especially typical benign types.

✅ This statement creates unnecessary fear and does not reflect the usual clinical course.

The most common type of meningioma is the astrocytoma tumor.

✅ Astrocytomas arise from astrocytes (glial cells) and are a different tumor category from meningiomas.

✅ This option confuses tumor origin and would mislead the patient.

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Answer 8

Correct Answers:

Monitor the patient's oxygen saturation and respiratory rate closely during administration.

Rationale :

♦️Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used as first-line emergency treatment to stop active seizures (status epilepticus risk).

♦️A major safety concern is respiratory depression, especially with IV administration, making airway and breathing monitoring the priority.

♦️Closely tracking oxygen saturation and respiratory rate allows rapid detection of hypoventilation and need for oxygen, positioning, suction, or assisted ventilation.

♦️Benzodiazepines can also cause hypotension and sedation, so continuous monitoring supports early intervention and prevents deterioration.

♦️In a seizing patient, protecting airway and ventilation is the most time-critical nursing responsibility while the medication is being given.

Assess for urinary output before giving the medication.

♦️Urine output is not an immediate priority when a patient is actively seizing and requires rapid seizure termination.

♦️The priority is airway, breathing, circulation during IV benzodiazepine use.

Prepare to administer oral phenytoin immediately after lorazepam.

♦️Follow-up antiseizure therapy may be needed, but oral medication is unsafe during/after a seizure due to aspiration risk and delayed onset.

♦️Stabilization and IV-based protocols come before oral administration planning.

Flush the IV line with 10 mL of saline rapidly before and after administration.

♦️A flush may be appropriate depending on policy, but “rapidly” is not the priority and can be unsafe in unstable patients.

♦️The immediate priority remains respiratory monitoring because lorazepam can depress breathing.

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Answer 9

Correct Answers:

Bleeding

Rationale :

◼️ Platelets are essential for primary hemostasis, and a critically low count places the patient at high risk for spontaneous bleeding.

◼️ In acute myeloid leukemia, thrombocytopenia can be severe, increasing risk for petechiae, ecchymosis, mucosal bleeding, and dangerous intracranial hemorrhage.

◼️ Bleeding precautions reduce trauma and prevent bleeding—examples include avoiding IM injections, using a soft toothbrush, and applying prolonged pressure after venipuncture.

◼️ The nurse should also avoid rectal temperatures/enemas because mucosal trauma can trigger significant bleeding.

◼️ Initiating bleeding precautions is the most appropriate action because it directly targets the patient’s immediate, life-threatening risk from thrombocytopenia.

Contact precautions.

◼️ Contact precautions are used for organisms spread by direct contact (e.g., C. diff, MRSA), not for low platelets.

◼️ Thrombocytopenia requires injury prevention, not isolation for transmission.

Neutropenic precautions.

◼️ Neutropenic precautions are for critically low neutrophils to prevent infection, not specifically for platelets.

◼️ The stem emphasizes critically low platelets, so bleeding prevention is the priority.

Droplet precautions.

◼️ Droplet precautions prevent respiratory spread (e.g., influenza, meningitis).

◼️ They do not address the key danger of hemorrhage from thrombocytopenia.

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Answer 10

Correct Answers:

Prepare for early defibrillation and immediately initiate high quality CPR.

Rationale :

📌 A rapid chaotic rhythm with no identifiable QRS complexes in a pulseless patient indicates ventricular fibrillation (VF), a shockable cardiac arrest rhythm.

📌The most effective treatment is early defibrillation because it can terminate VF and allow the heart’s organized rhythm to resume.

📌While the defibrillator is being brought/charged, the nurse must start high-quality CPR to maintain minimal circulation to the brain and heart.

📌High-quality CPR means adequate depth/rate, full recoil, minimal interruptions, and prompt rhythm checks per protocol.

📌This combined approach—CPR + defibrillation ASAP—matches evidence-based resuscitation priorities for shockable arrest rhythms.

Place the patient in high Fowler’s and administer oxygen.

📌Positioning and oxygen are not the priority in a pulseless arrest with VF.

📌The patient needs CPR and defibrillation, not supportive oxygen alone.

Assess for underlying electrolyte imbalances before starting interventions.

📌Causes can be addressed later, but delaying resuscitation reduces survival.

📌In VF arrest, you treat with immediate CPR/defibrillation, then evaluate reversible causes.

Begin administering IV amiodarone while waiting for the defibrillator.

📌Amiodarone may be used after shocks/CPR for refractory VF, but it is not the first intervention.

📌Defibrillation and CPR are more time-sensitive and life-saving than starting antiarrhythmics first.

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Custom NURS2201 Final Exam 2025 – LFT

No.

2 :
A nurse is caring for a client who receives furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client due to this medication?

3 :
A nurse is instructing a client who has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease about preventing the onset of manifestations. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse the need for additional teaching?

4 :
Which patient would be best suited for placement of a Dophoff tube, or a small bore feeding tube (SBFT), for enteral feedings?

5 :
A patient recently diagnosed with chronic GERD has been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec), a proton pump inhibitor. Which statement should the nurse include in their patient teaching?

6 :
A 62-year-old client with ESKD returns from surgery with a newly revised right upper-extremity AV shunt. Which nursing action best protects the patency and integrity of the access site?

7 :
You are the nurse caring for a patient who has just received a diagnosis of a meningioma brain tumor. Which statement will you incorporate into your teaching?

8 :
A nurse is caring for a 32-year-old patient who arrives in the emergency department actively seizing. The provider orders IV lorazepam (Ativan) to be administered immediately. Which nursing action is the priority when giving this medication?

9 :
A nurse is admitting a patient who has acute myeloid leukemia and a critically low platelet count. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate?

10 :
A patient suddenly collapses on the telemetry unit with no palpable pulse and no respirations. The ECG shows a rapid, chaotic rhythm with no recognizable QRS complexes. Which nursing action reflects the most appropriate management of care at this time?

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Custom NURS2201 Final Exam 2025 – LFT

No.

2 : A nurse is caring for a client who receives furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client due to this medication?

3 : A nurse is instructing a client who has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease about preventing the onset of manifestations. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse the need for additional teaching?

4 : Which patient would be best suited for placement of a Dophoff tube, or a small bore feeding tube (SBFT), for enteral feedings?

5 : A patient recently diagnosed with chronic GERD has been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec), a proton pump inhibitor. Which statement should the nurse include in their patient teaching?

6 : A 62-year-old client with ESKD returns from surgery with a newly revised right upper-extremity AV shunt. Which nursing action best protects the patency and integrity of the access site?

7 : You are the nurse caring for a patient who has just received a diagnosis of a meningioma brain tumor. Which statement will you incorporate into your teaching?

8 : A nurse is caring for a 32-year-old patient who arrives in the emergency department actively seizing. The provider orders IV lorazepam (Ativan) to be administered immediately. Which nursing action is the priority when giving this medication?

9 : A nurse is admitting a patient who has acute myeloid leukemia and a critically low platelet count. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate?

10 : A patient suddenly collapses on the telemetry unit with no palpable pulse and no respirations. The ECG shows a rapid, chaotic rhythm with no recognizable QRS complexes. Which nursing action reflects the most appropriate management of care at this time?

2 :
A nurse is caring for a client who receives furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client due to this medication?

3 :
A nurse is instructing a client who has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease about preventing the onset of manifestations. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse the need for additional teaching?

4 :
Which patient would be best suited for placement of a Dophoff tube, or a small bore feeding tube (SBFT), for enteral feedings?

5 :
A patient recently diagnosed with chronic GERD has been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec), a proton pump inhibitor. Which statement should the nurse include in their patient teaching?

6 :
A 62-year-old client with ESKD returns from surgery with a newly revised right upper-extremity AV shunt. Which nursing action best protects the patency and integrity of the access site?

7 :
You are the nurse caring for a patient who has just received a diagnosis of a meningioma brain tumor. Which statement will you incorporate into your teaching?

8 :
A nurse is caring for a 32-year-old patient who arrives in the emergency department actively seizing. The provider orders IV lorazepam (Ativan) to be administered immediately. Which nursing action is the priority when giving this medication?

9 :
A nurse is admitting a patient who has acute myeloid leukemia and a critically low platelet count. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate?

10 :
A patient suddenly collapses on the telemetry unit with no palpable pulse and no respirations. The ECG shows a rapid, chaotic rhythm with no recognizable QRS complexes. Which nursing action reflects the most appropriate management of care at this time?