1 :

0900

Temperature 38.0° C (100.4° F)

Heart rate 94/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Blood pressure 110/88 mm Hg

Pulse oximetry 97% on room air

0915

Temperature 38.0° C (100.4° F)

Heart rate 100/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure 106/80 mm Hg

Pulse oximetry 94% on room air

0920

Pulse oximetry 97% on room air 

0900

Received handoff report from nurse in the emergency department (ED): Client is experiencing acute abdominal pain, and hypovolemia.

0915

Client arrived to unit via stretcher from ED. Client oriented to room and discussed plan of care. Client is alert and cooperative and rates abdominal pain as 3 on a scale of 0 to 10. Client reports nausea and vomiting for about 2 days. Respirations shallow, even, and nonlabored. Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry increased after deep breathing exercises. Heart rate irregular and fast. Abdomen with slight tenderness to palpation. Client reports five loose stools since yesterday. Denies difficulty with urination. Gait steady. Will continue to monitor.

Admit to medical-surgical unit.

Obtain vital signs every 4 hr.

Monitor I&O.

Obtain daily weights.

Insert peripheral IV and begin maintenance IV fluids of 0.9% sodium chloride at 100 mL/hr.

Incentive spirometer education and place at bedside, use every 1 hr while awake.

Advance diet as tolerated.

Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV every 4 hr PRN pain.


Click to highlight the action that would be appropriate for the care of the client. Each body system may support more than 1 potential action. To deselect an action, click on the action again.


Cardiopulmonary Inform client to achieve two to four breaths per session when using incentive spirometer Encourage deep-breathing exercises Check for pain Gastrointestinal Encourage the client to increase fiber in their diet. Promote intake of oral fluids. Apply barrier ointment after bowel movements.

Hint : 💧For clients with vomiting, diarrhea, and hypovolemia, think: support breathing, manage pain, protect skin, and restore fluids rather than adding more fiber.

Correct Highlights :
  • Encourage deep-breathing exercises
  • Check for pain
  • Promote intake of oral fluids.
  • Apply barrier ointment after bowel movements.

Rationale :

Cardiopulmonary Actions

Encourage deep-breathing exercises.

🔹 Deep-breathing exercises help improve alveolar expansion, which increases oxygenation and supports gas exchange in a client with shallow respirations.

🔹 The nurse’s notes indicate that the client’s oxygen saturation improved after deep breathing, showing this intervention is already effective and should be continued.

🔹 Deep breathing also helps prevent atelectasis and postoperative or illness-related complications like pneumonia, especially in clients who may not be fully mobile.

🔹 Because the client has acute abdominal pain and hypovolemia, maintaining adequate oxygen delivery to tissues is essential to support overall perfusion.

🔹 This action directly aligns with the provider’s order for incentive spirometer education and use, reinforcing pulmonary hygiene and cardiopulmonary stability.

Check for pain.

🔹 The client reports abdominal pain rated 3/10, so ongoing pain assessment is a critical nursing responsibility.

🔹 Uncontrolled pain can cause tachycardia, shallow breathing, and anxiety, which can negatively affect the cardiopulmonary status and overall stability.

🔹 Regular pain checks allow the nurse to determine when PRN morphine sulfate should be administered as prescribed, supporting both comfort and physiologic stability.

🔹 Assessing pain also helps detect worsening abdominal conditions (e.g., perforation, obstruction, peritonitis) if the pain intensity, location, or quality changes.

🔹 Documentation and reassessment after interventions are part of evidence-based pain management, ensuring the client receives safe and effective care.

Inform client to achieve two to four breaths per session when using incentive spirometer.

🔹 Standard teaching for an incentive spirometer is usually about 10 slow, deep breaths every hour while awake, not just two to four breaths per session.

🔹 Only encouraging two to four breaths would provide insufficient lung expansion, limiting the effectiveness of the device in preventing atelectasis.

🔹 In this client, who already has shallow respirations and needed deep-breathing exercises to improve saturation, inadequate IS use would not meet cardiopulmonary needs.

🔹 Teaching the wrong frequency or number of breaths can lead to poor adherence and ineffective pulmonary hygiene, increasing risk for respiratory complications.

🔹 The nurse must give accurate, evidence-based instructions for IS use to ensure the client receives the full benefit of the prescribed intervention.

Gastrointestinal Actions

Promote intake of oral fluids.

🔹 The client has had nausea, vomiting for 2 days, and five loose stools, placing them at high risk for fluid volume deficit and electrolyte imbalance.

🔹 The provider has ordered maintenance IV fluids plus to advance diet as tolerated, so gentle encouragement of oral fluids (as tolerated) supports rehydration alongside IV therapy.

🔹 Adequate hydration helps maintain circulating volume, supports renal perfusion, and can help prevent complications of hypovolemia such as decreased blood pressure and tachycardia.

🔹 Promoting oral fluids also helps replace gastrointestinal losses, especially from diarrhea, which can rapidly deplete both fluid and electrolytes.

🔹 The nurse should encourage small, frequent sips of appropriate fluids, monitoring for intolerance (e.g., increased nausea) while strictly recording intake and output (I&O) as prescribed.

Apply barrier ointment after bowel movements.

🔹 The client reports five loose stools since yesterday, which increases risk of perianal skin breakdown due to moisture, acidity, and friction.

🔹 Applying a barrier ointment (zinc oxide or similar) after each bowel movement helps protect the skin by creating a moisture barrier against stool.

🔹 Protecting the skin is an essential part of GI and integumentary care, especially when diarrhea is present, to prevent dermatitis, pain, and infection.

🔹 This intervention is simple, cost-effective, and highly preventive, supporting client comfort and promoting skin integrity during the acute illness.

🔹 Combined with prompt cleansing after each stool and good hygiene, barrier ointment supports holistic care for a client experiencing frequent loose stools.

Encourage the client to increase fiber in their diet.

🔹 The client is experiencing acute abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and loose stools, which are not appropriate conditions for encouraging increased dietary fiber.

🔹 High-fiber intake is more appropriate in conditions like constipation or chronic bowel regulation, not when the client already has diarrhea and GI upset.

🔹 Increasing fiber now could worsen cramping, bloating, and stool frequency, further aggravating fluid and electrolyte loss.

🔹 The provider has ordered to advance the diet as tolerated, meaning the priority should be tolerable, gentle foods and fluids, not fiber-heavy meals.

🔹 Once the acute GI symptoms resolve, the nurse and provider may reassess long-term dietary needs, but fiber increase is not a priority in this acute hypovolemic, diarrheal state.


Distractor Analysis :

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2 :

0900

Client is admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia. IV of 0.9% sodium chloride infusing into 20-gauge peripheral IV located in the left hand at 90 mL/hr.

1300

Client has not voided since admission. Bladder is distended and palpable. Provider notified.

1330

Prescription obtained for intermittent catheterization.

1300

Bladder scan indicates a volume of 480 mL.

0900

Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)

Heart rate 98/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure 144/80 mm Hg


The nurse is planning care for the client. Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. After providing perineal care and donning sterile gloves, the nurse should first followed by .


Hint : 🩺Think sterile → clean → insert. The meatus must be disinfected before the catheter ever enters the urethra.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: cleaning the urethral meatus with antiseptic
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: slowly insert the catheter through the urethral meatus

Rationale :

First Action :Clean the urethral meatus with antiseptic.

✨Cleaning the urethral meatus with antiseptic is the first step after donning sterile gloves because it significantly reduces the number of microorganisms at the insertion site.

✨This action helps prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs), which are a major risk when inserting a urinary catheter.

✨Effective cleansing ensures that the catheter does not drag bacteria from the perineal surface into the urinary tract.

✨This step is required before touching or manipulating the catheter to maintain full sterile technique.

✨Performing antiseptic cleansing first promotes safe, infection-controlled catheterization, especially for this client who already has pneumonia and is at higher risk of infection.

Next Action: Slowly insert the catheter through the urethral meatus.

✨ After the meatus is cleaned, the sterile catheter can be gently inserted to avoid tissue trauma.

✨Slow insertion allows the nurse to monitor for resistance or discomfort, which helps prevent urethral injury.

✨The catheter must be advanced carefully to maintain sterility and ensure correct placement in the bladder.

✨This step is required before urine flow is observed and before any drainage or measurement can occur.

✨Proper and slow catheter insertion supports effective bladder emptying, especially important because this client has 480 mL of retention with a distended bladder.

“Prepare supplies within the catheterization kit.”

✨This step occurs before donning sterile gloves and before perineal cleaning, not after.

✨The supplies are already arranged once the sterile kit is opened using aseptic technique, so preparing them again at this stage would break sterility.

✨Doing this after gloves are donned risks contaminating the sterile field, increasing infection risk.

✨It interrupts the proper sequence of sterile catheterization by mixing clean and sterile actions.

✨Therefore, this is not the correct first step after perineal care and sterile glove application.

“Separate the labia.”

✨Separating the labia is performed before cleaning the urethral meatus, not after.

✨The labia must be separated prior to applying antiseptic so that the urethral opening is fully visible.

✨Doing this after donning sterile gloves is correct, but it must occur immediately before cleansing, not later in the sequence.

✨If done at the wrong time, it disrupts sterile technique and increases the risk of contaminating the area.

✨ Because cleansing comes first in this question’s sequence, this option is not the correct first action.

“Instruct the client to bear down as if they were going to void.”

✨Bearing down helps relax the pelvic floor but is done just before catheter insertion, not before cleansing.

✨If used at the wrong point, this step can cause contamination of the area due to urine leakage.

✨It does not replace the need for antiseptic cleansing, which is more important for infection control.

✨ It is an optional technique and not part of the mandatory sterile sequence required in catheterization.

✨Therefore, this is not the correct “first” action after donning sterile gloves.

“Inserting the catheter until urine flows.”

✨ This step comes after initial insertion, not immediately after donning gloves and cleansing.

✨ It indicates correct placement, but only after the catheter has already been advanced through the meatus.

✨Jumping to this step too soon would skip essential sterile practices and increase risk of trauma.

✨It must be done later in the sequence—once the catheter is already inside the urethra.

✨Therefore, it is not the next immediate action after cleansing.

“Measuring and recording urine output.”

✨This occurs only after the catheter is inserted and urine has drained, not early in the procedure.

✨Measuring output is important, especially since this client has 480 mL urinary retention, but timing matters.

✨Recording output does not contribute to sterile insertion and therefore must happen near the end of the procedure.

✨Jumping to this action too early would completely disrupt the sterile sequence.

✨Because it belongs in the final steps, it is not the correct choice here.

“Removing the catheter.”

✨In an intermittent catheterization, the catheter is removed only after the bladder is drained.

✨Removing it at this stage would prevent the nurse from completing the prescribed treatment.

✨It would leave the bladder still distended, failing to relieve the client’s discomfort or urinary retention.

✨It is completely out of order in the sterile procedure and would cause ineffective care.

✨Because removal happens last, it is never the correct step immediately after cleansing and glove use.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

3 :

Day 1

The client has left-sided weakness and is unable to ambulate without full assistance. 2+ pedal pulses present and equal bilaterally.

Day 2

Area of swelling and tenderness noted to back of right calf. Pedal pulses present and equal bilaterally. nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke.

Day 1

Platelets 165,000/mm² (150,000 to 400,000/mm³) Prealbumin level 23 mg/dl (15 to 36 mg/dl) bleeding


Complete the following sentence using the lists of options. The client is at risk for developing due to their .


Hint : 🦵Clients with limited movement after a stroke can develop calf swelling — always think DVT risk from venous stasis.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: deep vein thrombosis
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: immobility

Rationale :

Deep vein thrombosis – due to their immobility

💠Clients who have had a stroke often experience severe functional limitations, such as the left-sided weakness noted in this client, leading to significantly reduced mobility.

💠Immobility slows venous return in the lower extremities, creating conditions for blood to stagnate, especially in the calves, which dramatically increases the risk of DVT formation.

💠The new finding of swelling and tenderness in the right calf is one of the classic early symptoms of a developing deep vein thrombosis.

💠With pedal pulses still intact, the concern is not arterial occlusion but venous clot formation due to venous stasis, which is a direct result of reduced ambulation after the stroke.

💠 This situation requires urgent evaluation because a DVT can progress to a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication in immobile patients.

Incorrect Options

“Deep vein thrombosis due to their platelet level”

💠The platelet level of 165,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000–400,000/mm³).

💠Normal platelets do not increase the client’s risk of clot formation; they simply indicate normal clotting function.

💠DVT development is driven mainly by stasis of blood flow, not normal platelet values.

💠Using platelet count as the cause ignores the client’s immobility, which is the true risk factor.

💠Therefore, the platelet level is not the reason for the client's DVT risk.

“Deep vein thrombosis due to their prealbumin level”

💠The prealbumin level of 23 mg/dL is normal (15–36 mg/dL), indicating adequate nutritional status.

💠Prealbumin levels relate to nutritional assessment and wound-healing—not venous clot formation.

💠Normal prealbumin does not contribute to thrombosis and is not a risk factor for DVT.

💠Linking DVT with a normal nutritional marker ignores the main cause, which is immobility and venous stasis.

💠Therefore, prealbumin level is irrelevant to the risk of DVT in this scenario.

“Impaired healing due to their immobility”

💠 Immobility mainly increases the risk of pressure injury and blood clots, not impaired healing.

💠Healing is influenced by nutritional markers, such as prealbumin—and this client’s level is within normal range.

💠The scenario provides no wounds or surgical sites, so impaired healing is not applicable.

💠The new calf swelling directly suggests venous thrombosis, not a healing issue.

💠Therefore, immobility is linked with DVT, not impaired healing in this case.

“Impaired healing due to their platelet level”

💠Platelets affect clotting, not tissue repair or healing rate.

💠A normal platelet count does not impair or interfere with wound healing processes.

💠 Impaired healing would be expected if the prealbumin level were low—not the case here.

💠The scenario contains no evidence of wounds, making this option clinically irrelevant.

💠Thus, platelet level does not relate to impaired healing in this client.

“Impaired healing due to their prealbumin level”

💠 Prealbumin is normal (23 mg/dL), indicating healthy protein stores and adequate nutrition.

💠 Adequate protein supports tissue repair, immune function, and recovery.

💠There is no malnutrition, so impaired healing is not expected in this client.

💠The main clinical concern in the scenario is immobility and calf swelling, leading toward DVT risk—not healing issues.

💠Therefore, this option does not correctly match the client’s risk profile.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

4 :

0800

Client 1 is admitted with right hip pain following a fall. Client 2 has a history of hyperlipidemia. Client 3 has a history of congestive heart failure. Client 4 has hypertension and a new prescription for furosemide. Client 5 has a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. Client 6 is admitted with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.

1400

Client 1: Right hip x-ray with fractured femoral neck

Client 2: HDL 40 mg/dL (greater than 45 mg/dL)

Client 3: Chest x-ray: Pulmonary edema

Client 4: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L)

Client 5: Prealbumin 12 mg/dL (15 to 36 mg/dL)

Client 6: Glycosylated hemoglobin 9% (Good diabetic control less than 7%)


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The first client the nurse should assess is followed by .


Hint : 🫁Always assess the client with airway or breathing compromise (pulmonary edema) first, followed by cardiac electrolyte risks (hypokalemia + diuretic).

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Client 3
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: Client 4

Rationale :

Client 3 Is FIRST Priority

🟨Client 3 has pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening complication of congestive heart failure requiring immediate assessment and intervention.

🟨 Pulmonary edema causes severely impaired gas exchange, leading to hypoxia, respiratory distress, frothy sputum, crackles, and potential respiratory failure.

🟨The chest X-ray confirming pulmonary edema indicates fluid accumulation in the lungs, which can rapidly worsen if not treated promptly.

🟨 This client is at the highest risk of acute decompensation, including possible airway compromise, arrhythmias, and cardiogenic shock.

🟨Because airway and breathing issues fall under ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), this client is the highest priority among all six clients.

Client 4 Is SECOND Priority

🟨Client 4 has a potassium of 3.4 mEq/L, which is hypokalemia, and they have a new prescription for furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic.

🟨Hypokalemia increases the risk of dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and arrhythmias such as PVCs or ventricular tachycardia.

🟨Giving furosemide to a client with already low potassium could cause severe hypokalemia, potentially leading to cardiac arrest.

🟨This client must be assessed promptly so the nurse can hold the medication, notify the provider, and anticipate potassium replacement.

🟨 While this is a cardiovascular risk, it is not as immediately life-threatening as pulmonary edema, making this client second priority.

Incorrect options.

Client 1 – Right hip fracture

🟨 Although painful and requiring surgical evaluation, this is a stable orthopedic injury.

🟨 The client is not showing signs of shock, neurovascular compromise, or respiratory distress.

🟨 Orthopedic pain is significant but not an airway or circulation emergency.

🟨 This client should be assessed soon, but not before life-threatening conditions.

🟨 Thus, they are lower urgency compared to pulmonary edema or hypokalemia.

Client 2 – HDL 40 mg/dL (low HDL)

🟨Low HDL is a long-term cardiovascular risk, not an acute problem.

🟨The client is stable, with no urgent clinical complications.

🟨This finding does not require immediate nursing intervention.

🟨Teaching and lifestyle counseling can occur later in the shift.

🟨Therefore, this client is the lowest priority.

Client 5 – Prealbumin 12 mg/dL (malnutrition)

🟨A prealbumin of 12 mg/dL indicates poor nutrition but is not an emergency.

🟨Malnutrition affects wound healing, especially with a stage 2 pressure injury, but intervention is not time-critical.

🟨This client requires monitoring and dietary planning, not immediate rescue care.

🟨No airway, breathing, circulation, or acute neuro changes are present.

🟨Therefore, they do not take precedence over clients with emergent risks.

Client 6 – HbA1c 9% (poor diabetic control)

🟨An A1C of 9% means long-term poor glucose control, not an acute crisis.

🟨There is no hyperglycemia emergency (DKA or HHS) indicated in the scenario.

🟨Education and medication adjustment can safely occur later.

🟨This does not place the client at immediate risk of rapid deterioration.

🟨 Therefore, this client is also not an immediate priority.


Distractor Analysis :

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5 :

0830

Morphine 10 mg subcutaneous every 3 hr.

0900

Client is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Client appears restless and is grimacing. Client reports incisional pain as 9 on a scale of 0 to 10. Morphine 10 mg administered subcutaneous as prescribed.

1000

Client is difficult to arouse. Pupils are 3 mm, equal, and reactive to light.

0900

Temperature 37.6° C (99.7° F)

Blood pressure 108/56 mm Hg

Heart rate 78/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Pulse oximetry 95% on room air (95% to 100%)

1000

Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F)

Blood pressure 99/46 mm Hg

Heart rate 61/min

Respiratory rate 10/min

Pulse oximetry 88% on room air (95% to 100%)


Click to highlight the documentation in the client's medical record that requires further action by the nurse. To select documentation, click on the documentation again.


Temperature 37.5° C (99.5° F) Client is difficult to arouse Respiratory rate 10/min Pulse oximetry 88% on room air (95% to 100%) Pupils are 3 mm, equal, and reactive to light. Blood pressure 99/46 mm Hg Heart rate 61/min

Hint : 🫁After opioid administration, always prioritize level of consciousness, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation — these indicate early opioid toxicity.

Correct Highlights :
  • Client is difficult to arouse
  • Respiratory rate 10/min
  • Pulse oximetry 88% on room air (95% to 100%)

Rationale :

Client is difficult to arouse

💠 This indicates central nervous system depression, which is a known adverse effect of opioid analgesics such as morphine.

💠 A postoperative client who received morphine only 1 hour earlier should not have a declining level of consciousness this rapidly.

💠 Difficulty arousing the client suggests the early stages of opioid toxicity, even before other vital sign abnormalities appear.

💠 This change from the baseline (alert and oriented at 0900) is an acute neurological deterioration, which is a priority.

💠 The nurse must assess airway, stimulate the client, hold further opioids, and prepare to administer naloxone if indicated.

Respiratory rate 10/min

💠 A respiratory rate of 10/min is below the safe threshold for patients receiving opioids, who should be monitored for respiratory depression.

💠 Morphine decreases the brain’s respiratory drive, making hypoventilation a life-threatening complication.

💠 A rapid drop from 22/min (one hour earlier) to 10/min represents significant respiratory decline.

💠 When paired with decreased arousability, this confirms opioid-induced respiratory depression, which can progress to apnea if untreated.

💠 The nurse must intervene immediately to support ventilation and notify the provider.

Pulse oximetry 88% on room air

💠 An O₂ saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, a critical finding requiring immediate intervention.

💠 This is below the normal range of 95%–100%, and occurred after the administration of morphine, confirming inadequate oxygenation.

💠 Low oxygen saturation combined with low respiratory rate strongly suggests opioid overdose with impending respiratory failure.

💠 The client requires supplemental oxygen, close monitoring, and evaluation for naloxone administration to reverse opioid effects.

💠 Without prompt treatment, hypoxemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, brain injury, or respiratory arrest.

Documentation That Does NOT Require Immediate Action

Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F)

🟢This temperature is normal and not clinically concerning.

🟢It does not indicate infection, sepsis, or opioid sequelae.

🟢Postoperative clients often have minor temperature fluctuations.

🟢There is no rapid increase or associated concerning symptoms.

🟢No immediate intervention is required.

Pupils 3 mm, equal, reactive to light

🟢Pupils equal and reactive to light indicate normal neurological function in terms of cranial nerve III assessment.

🟢Although opioids commonly cause pinpoint pupils, 3 mm is not severely constricted.

🟢Pupil reactivity is preserved, which is a positive sign.

🟢This finding alone does not indicate impending respiratory arrest.

🟢No urgent action is needed based solely on this documentation.

Blood pressure 99/46 mmHg + heart rate 61/min

🟢Slight drops in blood pressure and heart rate can occur after morphine administration due to vasodilation and relaxation.

🟢These values are lower than baseline but not yet at a critical level requiring emergency intervention.

🟢The priority concerns with opioids are respiratory rate and level of consciousness, both of which are already addressed above.

🟢Monitor closely, but do not prioritize this over hypoventilation and hypoxia.

🟢These hemodynamic changes are secondary and not the first immediate threat to life.


Distractor Analysis :

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6 :

1000

An older adult client admitted following a fall down approximately five steps. Client's partner reports client possibly hit their head and was a little disoriented for a minute or two. Client states, "I feel fine. I just slipped." Client has a history of falls and orthostatic hypotension per client's partner. Client uses a walker and wears rubber-soled slippers at home. Client ordered new glasses following an eye examination. last week but has not received them yet. Partner states they both do exercises that focus on coordination, three times per week.

1400

An assistive personnel found the client lying on the floor after coming back from the bathroom. Client states, "I'm so sorry. I had to get up to go to the bathroom, and I couldn't wait for someone to help me." Client is awake, alert, and oriented to person, place, and time. Client reports no pain. Assessment reveals no injury. Client was provided call button and reminded to call for help when getting out of bed. Bed alarm activated.

A nurse is caring for an older adult client newly admitted to the medical unit.

1000

Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)

Heart rate 72/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure Lying: 130/90 mm Hg

Sitting: 128/88 mm Hg

Standing: 98/60 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 97% on room air

1405

Heart rate 110/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Blood pressure 120/90 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 95% on room air


Click to highlight the pieces of information that indicate the client is at risk for falls. To deselect a piece of information, click on that piece of information again.


Nurses' Notes 1000 An older adult client admitted following a fall down approximately five steps. Client's partner reports client possibly hit their head and was a little disoriented for a minute or two. Client states, "I feel fine. I just slipped." Client has a history of falls and orthostatic hypotension per client's partner. Client uses a walker and wears rubber-soled slippers at home. Client ordered new glasses following an eye examination last week but has not received them yet. Partner states they both do exercises that focus on coordination, three times per week. Vital Signs 1000 Temperature 37° C (98.6° F) Heart rate 72/min Respiratory rate 20/min Blood pressure Lying: 130/90 mm Hg Sitting: 128/88 mm Hg Standing: 98/60 mm Hg Oxygen saturation 97% on room air

Hint : ⚠️Anything involving vision impairment, orthostatic changes, previous falls, or assistive device use is a fall-risk red flag.

Correct Highlights :
  • history of falls
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • uses a walker
  • new glasses following an eye examination last week but has not received them yet
  • Standing: 98/60 mm Hg

Rationale :

History of falls

🟧A previous fall is one of the strongest predictors of future falls in older adults, according to the CDC and fall-risk guidelines.

🟧This client has already fallen down five steps before admission, indicating a pattern of instability or unsafe mobility.

🟧 A fall with possible head injury and momentary disorientation shows they are vulnerable to balance issues or neurological changes.

🟧Research consistently shows that older adults with a prior fall are twice as likely to fall again.

🟧Therefore, this information significantly elevates the client’s overall fall risk and must be highlighted.

Orthostatic hypotension

🟧The client’s blood pressure dropped from 130/90 (lying) to 98/60 (standing), confirming orthostatic hypotension.

🟧Orthostatic hypotension causes sudden dizziness, weakness, and syncope, all of which directly increase fall risk.

🟧 In older adults, the baroreceptors respond more slowly, meaning they are more susceptible to sudden drops in BP during position changes.

🟧This client already has a history of falls related to this condition, further compounding the danger.

🟧 This is a major red flag and must be highlighted as a fall-risk factor.

Uses a walker

🟧The need for an assistive device indicates impaired mobility, which already places a client in a higher fall-risk category.

🟧Clients who depend on walkers may experience balance instability when reaching, turning, or transferring.

🟧Incorrect use of devices or attempting to ambulate without assistance often leads to falls.

🟧This client was later found on the floor after trying to go to the bathroom alone, despite using such a device.

🟧Therefore, reliance on a walker is a strong contributor to fall risk and must be highlighted.

New glasses ordered but not yet received

🟧Vision changes are one of the most common contributors to falls in older adults.

🟧The client has not yet received prescribed glasses, meaning they are operating with suboptimal or incorrect vision.

🟧Poor vision impairs depth perception, hazard recognition, and balance.

🟧Older adults with impaired vision are at significantly higher risk for falls, especially in unfamiliar environments such as the hospital.

🟧This is a definitive fall risk factor and must be highlighted.

Standing BP: 98/60 mm Hg (Orthostatic finding)

🟧 This specific vital sign confirms a clinically significant drop in blood pressure, meeting diagnostic criteria for orthostatic hypotension.

🟧 The BP drop of more than 20 mm Hg systolic or 10 mm Hg diastolic from lying to standing increases the risk of fainting.

🟧 Falls often occur when clients rise quickly, especially when going to the bathroom—exactly what happened at 1400.

🟧 This BP reading correlates with the client’s earlier reported history of orthostatic hypotension.

🟧 Therefore, this vital sign is a key indicator and must be highlighted.

Items That Do NOT Increase Fall Risk

Exercises focusing on coordination three times per week

🟧Regular exercise improves balance, strength, and proprioception, all of which reduce fall risk.

🟧There is no evidence that these exercises are causing instability.

🟧Consistent physical activity is actually a protective factor in geriatric fall prevention programs.

🟧This information does not contribute to risk and should not be highlighted.

🟧Therefore, this is a positive health behavior, not a fall-risk factor.

Normal temperature, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation

🟧These values (Temp 37°C, RR 20/min, O₂ 97%) indicate normal physiological stability.

🟧They do not contribute to dizziness, weakness, or impaired cognition.

🟧 Normal vitals do not increase likelihood of falling.

🟧The client’s fall risks are mainly mobility- and vision-related, not physiological instability.

🟧Therefore, these should not be highlighted.


Distractor Analysis :

Rationale for Incorrect Options to be Available Soon

7 :

0950

A male client transferred to room from PACU following abdominal surgery. Report received that estimated blood loss in the procedure was 1200 mL. Client is alert and talking. Lung sounds clear, heart regular rate and rhythm, hypoactive bowel sounds. Sequential compression devices in place and peripheral pulses palpable and equal bilaterally. Client can feel and wiggle toes.

1025

Called to room. Client appears agitated. The client states, "I feel like something is wrong." Lung sounds clear, increased rate and depth of respirations noted. Client rates incisional pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Surgical dressing dry and intact. Hypoactive bowel sounds. Peripheral pulses palpable and strong, capillary refill time (CRT) less than 3 seconds, equal sensation bilaterally.

0950

Heart rate 82/min

Respiratory rate 16/min

Blood pressure 104/68 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 95% on 1 L/min nasal cannula

1025

Heart rate 104/min

Respiratory rate 24/min

Blood pressure 108/70 mm Hg

Oxygen saturation 90% on 1 L/min nasal cannula

1025

Postoperative labs received

WBC count 10,800/mm² (5,000 to 10,000/mm³)

Hgb 8.3 g/dL (14 to 18 g/dL)

Hct 32% (42 to 52%)


Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The nurse should first follow up on the client's and .


Hint : 🫁 A sudden drop in oxygen + sudden behavioral change = early warning sign of postoperative deterioration or hypoxia—always assess these FIRST.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: oxygen saturation
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: behavioral findings

Rationale :

OXYGEN SATURATION requires immediate follow-up

💠 The client’s oxygen saturation has dropped from 95% to 90%, even while still receiving 1 L/min oxygen, indicating a decline in respiratory status.

💠 This change, combined with increased respiratory rate and depth, suggests the client may be developing hypoxemia, a postoperative emergency.

💠 A sudden drop in SpO₂ after major surgery with 1200 mL blood loss raises concern for decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to the newly identified low hemoglobin (8.3 g/dL).

💠 When the body detects low hemoglobin or hypoxia, it compensates by increasing respiratory rate—exactly what is occurring (RR ↑ from 16 to 24).

💠 Because airway and oxygenation fall under the ABCs, the nurse must assess and intervene on oxygen saturation first before addressing anything else.

BEHAVIORAL FINDINGS require follow-up next

💠 The client suddenly reports, “I feel like something is wrong,” which is a classic behavioral indicator of early postoperative deterioration.

💠 Behavioral changes such as agitation, restlessness, and anxiety frequently accompany hypoxia, blood loss, or early shock.

💠 A client who was alert and calm only 35 minutes earlier is now visibly distressed and physiologically unstable—this is a red flag.

💠 These mental-status changes may be the earliest sign of inadequate perfusion, especially with a hemoglobin of 8.3 g/dL after major surgical blood loss.

💠 Behavioral findings help the nurse recognize clinical decline before vital signs fully crash, making this the next most urgent assessment priority after oxygen saturation.

NOT first priorities

Pain

💠Pain is present but stable (5/10) and unchanged from typical postoperative expectations.

💠The client’s distress is not primarily related to pain but to internal physiological instability.

💠ABCs take precedence over comfort needs.

💠Pain would be addressed after respiratory and behavioral concerns.

💠No evidence of uncontrolled or severe pain requiring urgent response.

WBC count

💠WBC 10,800/mm³ is only slightly elevated and not an emergency.

💠Mild elevation is normal in the postoperative period.

💠No signs of infection (surgical site intact, afebrile, stable BP).

💠This finding does not explain the client’s acute deterioration.

💠Should be monitored later, not first.

Bowel findings

💠Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected after abdominal surgery.

💠No signs of obstruction, ileus, or peritonitis.

💠This has not changed from the earlier assessment.

💠Does not explain the client’s rapid physiological decline.

💠Therefore, not a priority compared with oxygenation and behavioral changes.


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8 :

Day 1: 0800

The client is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty.

Oxycodone 10 mg PO every 4 hr PRN pain.

Day 1: 0800

Potassium 4.2 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L)

Sodium 139 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L)

Glucose 100 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)

Day 1: 1200

Client is resting in bed with an abductor pillow in place. Repositioned every 2 hr. Peripheral IV in left arm infusing dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride infusing at 125 mL/hr. Client reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Oxycodone 10 mg PO administered.

1400

Client is sleeping and is easily aroused. Client reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10.


Drag 1 condition and 1 client finding to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The client is at risk for developing due to .


Hint : When you see opioids in a postoperative client, always think: “Watch the bowels — constipation is coming unless I prevent it.”

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Constipation
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: opioid use

Rationale :

Condition: Constipation

💎 Opioids like oxycodone slow gastrointestinal motility by binding to mu-receptors in the gut, which decreases peristalsis and prolongs transit time.

💎 When peristalsis slows, more water is absorbed from the stool, making it dry, hard, and difficult to pass.

💎 Postoperative hip arthroplasty clients are often less mobile, which, combined with opioids, further increases the risk of constipation.

💎 If constipation is not prevented, it can progress to fecal impaction, abdominal discomfort, nausea, and even delirium in older adults.

💎 Because this client is receiving repeated PRN doses of oxycodone, the nurse should anticipate constipation and initiate preventive measures such as fluids, fiber (when appropriate), and stool softeners as ordered.

Finding: Opioid use

💎 The client has an active order for oxycodone 10 mg PO every 4 hr PRN, and a dose was given for severe pain (8/10), confirming significant opioid exposure.

💎 Oxycodone is a potent opioid analgesic, and all opioids share a common adverse effect of decreased bowel motility.

💎 Opioid-induced constipation does not improve over time like sedation; instead, it persists for as long as the opioid is used unless prophylaxis is implemented.

💎 Unlike the lab values (potassium, sodium, glucose), which are all normal, opioid use is a clear, present, and modifiable risk factor in this case.

💎 Therefore, when matching a finding to a condition, opioid use most appropriately explains the risk for constipation in a postoperative hip client.

Incorrect Conditions

Confusion

💎 Confusion can occur postoperatively due to hypoxia, infection, metabolic imbalance, or polypharmacy, but none of these are currently documented here.

💎 The client is described as resting, sleeping, and easily aroused, with no mention of disorientation or altered mental status.

💎 Vital signs are stable and labs are within normal ranges, which makes acute delirium or confusion less likely at this moment.

💎 Although opioids can contribute to sedation and confusion, there is no clinical evidence presented to suggest this is an active or imminent issue.

💎 Thus, confusion is not the primary risk the question is targeting compared with the much more common and predictable opioid-induced constipation.

Dysrhythmias

💎 Dysrhythmias are often associated with electrolyte imbalances, especially abnormal potassium or magnesium levels, ischemia, or cardiac disease.

💎 This client’s potassium is 4.2 mEq/L and sodium is normal, so there is no electrolyte-based trigger for dysrhythmias.

💎 There is no history given of underlying cardiac disease, chest pain, palpitations, or abnormal heart rate.

💎 Opioids are not primarily linked to causing cardiac dysrhythmias in the absence of other risk factors.

💎 Therefore, dysrhythmias are not the best-matching condition based on the data provided.

Pressure injuries

💎 Pressure injuries are associated with prolonged immobility, friction, shear, moisture, and poor nutrition.

💎 Although the client is postoperative with limited mobility, the nurse is repositioning the client every 2 hours, which is an appropriate preventive measure.

💎 There is no documentation of redness, skin breakdown, or bony prominence issues, which would suggest an active or imminent pressure injury concern.

💎 While immobility does increase risk, the question focuses on a more direct and classic medication-related risk, which is constipation from opioids.

💎 Thus, pressure injuries are a possible long-term risk but not the primary concern highlighted in this scenario.

Hypoglycemia

💎 Hypoglycemia is characterized by low blood glucose, usually <70 mg/dL, and the client’s glucose is 100 mg/dL, which is normal.

💎 The client is receiving dextrose 5% in 0.45% NaCl, which actually provides a small continuous source of glucose, making hypoglycemia less likely, not more.

💎 There is no mention of insulin therapy, oral hypoglycemics, or decreased oral intake that would put the client at risk for a sudden glucose drop.

💎 No symptoms of hypoglycemia—such as diaphoresis, shakiness, confusion, or tachycardia—are documented.

💎 Therefore, hypoglycemia does not fit the scenario and is not the condition this question is targeting.

Incorrect Findings

Potassium level

💎 The client’s potassium is 4.2 mEq/L, which falls squarely within the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.

💎 Normal potassium does not place the client at special risk for dysrhythmias or other acute complications.

💎 There is no evidence of vomiting, diarrhea, diuretics, or renal dysfunction that might cause potassium disturbances.

💎 Because the potassium level is stable, it is not a contributing factor to any major risk condition in this question.

💎 Therefore, potassium level is not the correct “finding” to link to a risk condition here.

Sodium level

💎 The sodium level is 139 mEq/L, which is within the normal range of 136 to 145 mEq/L.

💎 Abnormal sodium can contribute to confusion, seizures, or fluid balance issues, but that is not the case here.

💎 This normal result indicates electrolyte stability, not something that increases the client’s current risk profile.

💎 There is no mention of fluid overload, dehydration, or neurologic signs tied to sodium imbalance.

💎 Therefore, sodium level is not the correct finding to associate with any of the listed at-risk conditions.

IV dextrose

💎 The client is receiving D5 in 0.45% NaCl at 125 mL/hr, which is a common postoperative fluid choice.

💎 This infusion provides maintenance fluids and a modest glucose supply, helping to prevent hypoglycemia rather than cause it.

💎 While excessive dextrose could potentially contribute to hyperglycemia, there is no documentation of elevated glucose or diabetes in this scenario.

💎 The risk of hypoglycemia is extremely low here because the glucose level is normal and dextrose is being infused.

💎 Therefore, IV dextrose is not the best match as a finding for any major risk condition in this case.

Immobility

💎 Immobility does increase risk for pressure injuries, venous thromboembolism, and constipation, especially in postoperative orthopedic patients.

💎 However, the nurse is repositioning the client every 2 hours, which helps mitigate pressure injury risk.

💎 The question is designed to connect the most direct and classic cause-effect pair, which is opioid use leading to constipation.

💎 While immobility contributes to constipation, it is less uniquely specific than opioid use, which is almost universally associated with opioid-induced constipation.

💎 Therefore, immobility is a relevant factor but not the best answer compared with opioid use in this scenario.


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9 :

Denies diabetes mellitus or peripheral vascular disease.

1000

Client is 6 hr postoperative following an appendectomy. Bilateral breath sounds are shallow but clear and present throughout. Abdomen soft, nondistended, bowel sounds hypoactive. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact. Urinary catheter removed in PACU. Client reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Morphine 4 mg IV administered as prescribed. Client wearing sequential compression device. 

1200

Voided 350 mL of clear yellow urine. Abdominal dressing remains dry and intact. Abdomen soft, nondistended, bowel sounds hypoactive. Pedal pulse is even bilaterally, no edema noted in the bilateral extremities. Client drowsy. Reports pain as 2 on a scale of 0 to 10.

1000

Temperature 36° C (96.8° F)

Blood pressure 118/56 mm Hg

Heart rate 92/min

Respiratory rate 18/min

Oxygen saturation 95% on room air

1200

Temperature 37.2° C (99° F)

Blood pressure 104/56 mm Hg

Heart rate 62/min

Respiratory rate 12/min

Oxygen saturation 94% on room air.


Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The client is most at risk of developing and .


Hint : 🩺Right after abdominal surgery, always think atelectasis from shallow breathing and ileus from anesthesia + opioids + bowel manipulation.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: atelectasis
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: paralytic ileus

Rationale :

Atelectasis

🔹 The client is 6 hours postoperative, which is the highest-risk window for atelectasis because anesthesia and pain reduce deep breathing and effective lung expansion.

🔹 Lung assessment shows shallow breath sounds, which is a classic early sign of hypoventilation leading to alveolar collapse.

🔹 The client also received morphine 4 mg IV, which depresses the respiratory drive and further increases atelectasis risk.

🔹 Abdominal surgeries especially impair deep breathing because pain limits the ability to fully expand the diaphragm.

🔹 Without aggressive interventions like incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing, atelectasis can progress to hypoxia or postoperative pneumonia.

Paralytic Ileus

🔹 The client has hypoactive bowel sounds at both 1000 and 1200, which is expected early after abdominal surgery but still indicates risk for ileus.

🔹 Appendectomy patients frequently develop postoperative ileus because bowel manipulation during surgery temporarily paralyzes intestinal motility.

🔹 The use of opioids postoperatively slows gut motility even further, compounding the risk.

🔹 The abdomen remains soft and nondistended, which does not confirm ileus yet, but the reduced bowel activity and risk factors make this a priority condition to monitor.

🔹 If paralytic ileus develops, the client may experience abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus, requiring significant intervention.

Incorrect Options

Urinary tract infection

🔹 The client voided 350 mL of clear yellow urine, indicating normal urinary function after catheter removal.

🔹 There is no dysuria, urgency, fever, cloudy urine, or foul odor, which are typical UTI signs.

🔹 The urinary catheter was removed early in PACU, reducing infection risk significantly.

🔹 This is not a common complication within only 6 hours postoperative.

🔹 Therefore, UTI is not the most immediate or likely postoperative risk.

Deep vein thrombosis

🔹 The client is wearing sequential compression devices, a primary DVT prevention measure.

🔹 Pedal pulses are present and equal bilaterally, and there is no edema, which reduces suspicion for early DVT.

🔹 The client is young postoperatively, and only 6 hours have passed—DVT usually develops after prolonged immobility over days, not hours.

🔹 There are no signs of unilateral leg pain, warmth, or swelling.

🔹 While all surgical clients have some DVT risk, it is not the MOST immediate concern compared to atelectasis and ileus.

Delayed wound healing

🔹 The surgical dressing remains dry and intact, indicating normal healing in progress.

🔹 The client is normothermic and has stable vital signs, suggesting adequate perfusion and oxygenation for healing.

🔹 There are no risk factors such as diabetes, poor nutrition, or infection, making delayed wound healing less likely.

🔹 It is too early (6 hours post-op) to evaluate wound healing delays.

🔹 Therefore, this is not the primary risk at this time.


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10 :

Hint : 🧫For UTIs, always think: stagnant urine = bacteria party → retention is the key risk.

Correct Answers:

  • Decreased bladder tone can cause urinary retention.


Rationale :

🌟 Decreased bladder muscle tone in older adults leads to incomplete emptying of the bladder, causing urinary retention.

🌟 When urine remains in the bladder, it becomes a stagnant medium that promotes bacterial growth, increasing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

🌟 This residual urine also makes it easier for ascending bacteria from the urethra to multiply and colonize the bladder.

🌟 Teaching the client that retention increases UTI risk helps them understand the importance of regular voiding and reporting difficulty emptying.

🌟 Therefore, this statement accurately links an age-related change (decreased bladder tone) with an increased UTI risk and should be included in teaching.

Incorrect options.

“The ability to concentrate urine decreases.”

🌟 Older adults can have a diminished ability to concentrate urine, leading to more dilute urine and sometimes increased nocturia.

🌟 However, this change is more closely related to fluid balance and dehydration risk than directly to UTIs.

🌟 Dilute urine is actually less irritating and not a primary driver of bacterial colonization.

🌟 While it is an age-related change, it is not the key factor that increases UTI risk compared with urinary retention or incontinence.

🌟 Thus, it’s not the most important teaching point when specifically focusing on UTI risk factors.

“The urethral sphincter functions less efficiently.”

🌟 A less efficient urethral sphincter can lead to stress or urge incontinence in older adults.

🌟 Incontinence can increase UTI risk because moisture and residual urine on the perineum promote bacterial growth.

🌟 However, this item does not clearly explain the mechanism of retention, which is the stronger and more direct risk for UTIs.

🌟 In exam-style questions, the BEST answer is usually the one that most directly ties the change to UTI development—here, that is retention.

🌟 So although partially relevant, this is not the primary choice the test is targeting.

“Bladder capacity decreases in older adults.”

🌟 Decreased bladder capacity causes more frequent voiding because the bladder cannot hold as much urine.

🌟 More frequent voiding actually helps reduce urinary stasis, which may lower UTI risk.

🌟 This change is more associated with urgency and nocturia than with infection risk.

🌟 It does not inherently cause retention or bacterial overgrowth.

🌟 Therefore, this is not the best statement when teaching about factors that increase UTI risk.


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Total Questions: 10

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