1 :

Hint : Always confirm placement before feeding

Correct Answers:

  • Verify placement of the NG tube


Rationale :

💎The priority action before administering any feeding via a nasogastric tube is to verify correct placement in the stomach or intestines.

💎Incorrect placement, such as in the lungs, can result in aspiration pneumonia, respiratory distress, or death if feeding is initiated.

💎Verification methods include aspiration of gastric contents with pH testing, x-ray confirmation (gold standard for initial placement), or observing for gastric residuals per facility policy.

💎Irrigating or checking the tape before confirming placement is unsafe, and attaching the tube to suction is not indicated unless ordered for decompression, not feeding.


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2 :

Hint : 💎Dialysis diet = high protein, low potassium, low phosphorus, low sodium

Correct Answers:

  • Oatmeal with cream, half a banana and turkey sausage


Rationale :

💎Clients on hemodialysis need a diet that is high in protein to replace protein lost during dialysis, but restricted in potassium, phosphorus, sodium, and fluids.

💎Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and turkey sausage provides:

Protein from turkey sausage (needed for healing and muscle maintenance).

Controlled potassium (half a banana provides a small, safe portion of potassium, not excessive).

Oatmeal and cream provide energy without dangerously high phosphorus.

💎Other options explained:

Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, cranberry juice: High sodium and high phosphorus (cheese, tomato soup).

Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and orange juice: Eggs are good protein, but orange juice is high in potassium (unsafe).

Split-pea soup, whole-wheat toast, and nonfat milk: Legumes (peas) and milk are very high in phosphorus and potassium, not recommended.


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3 :

Hint : Creatinine rises when kidneys fail

Correct Answers:

  • Elevated creatinine level


Rationale :

💎 Creatinine is a waste product of normal muscle metabolism that should be filtered by healthy kidneys.

💎 In chronic kidney disease (CKD), the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases, reducing the kidneys’ ability to excrete creatinine.

💎 As a result, serum creatinine levels rise, making this the key laboratory finding indicative of CKD.

💎 Although CKD can also lead to anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin) due to decreased erythropoietin, this is a secondary effect rather than the main indicator.

💎 The most consistent and direct sign of CKD in lab results is elevated creatinine levels.


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4 :

Hint : UAP = basic comfort care

Correct Answers:

  • Elevating the patient's arm on 2 pillows to promote lymphatic drainage


Rationale :

🟡 Delegation to an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP) is appropriate when the task is non-invasive, routine, and does not require nursing judgment or teaching.

🟡 Elevating the patient’s arm on pillows to promote lymphatic drainage is a safe, comfort-promoting activity that falls within the UAP’s scope of care.

🟡 Tasks such as reinforcing dressings, assessing for lymphedema, or providing teaching require nursing judgment, evaluation, or education, and therefore must remain the responsibility of the licensed nurse.

🟡 By delegating arm elevation, the nurse ensures comfort and supports lymphatic return while maintaining patient safety.


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5 :

Hint : Cold blood → heart stops

Correct Answers:

  • Cardiac arrest


Rationale :

🔷 During hemodialysis, the patient’s blood circulates outside the body through the dialysis machine. If the blood is not warmed before being returned, the infusion of cold blood can cause a sudden drop in core body temperature (hypothermia).

🔷 Hypothermia triggers intense vasoconstriction and arrhythmias, which can ultimately lead to cardiac arrest.

🔷 Warming the blood to body temperature ensures hemodynamic stability and prevents life-threatening cardiovascular complications.

🔷 Therefore, warming is an essential safety measure during dialysis to protect the heart and maintain patient stability.


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6 :

Hint : D&C = endometrium check

Correct Answers:

  • Endometrial hypoplasia


Rationale :

💎 A dilation and curettage (D&C) involves dilating the cervix and scraping or suctioning tissue from the uterine lining (endometrium) for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

💎 It is primarily used to evaluate endometrial tissue for abnormalities such as hyperplasia, hypoplasia, polyps, or malignancy.

💎 While it may be performed to investigate abnormal uterine bleeding, infertility, or miscarriages, its main diagnostic value lies in identifying changes in the endometrial lining.

💎 It is not used to diagnose ovarian cancer, amenorrhea, or dysmenorrhea, which require different diagnostic approaches.


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7 :

Hint : Thrill + bruit = patent fistula

Correct Answers:

  • Palpate for thrill and auscultate bruit over fistula


Rationale :

🟢 An arteriovenous (AV) fistula is created surgically to provide vascular access for hemodialysis, usually in the arm.

🟢 To check for patency, the nurse should palpate for a thrill (a vibration felt over the fistula site) and auscultate for a bruit (a swishing sound heard with a stethoscope).

🟢 The presence of both a thrill and bruit confirms that blood is flowing adequately through the fistula, which is essential for effective dialysis.

🟢 Assessing the radial or brachial artery directly does not confirm fistula function; the check must be done directly over the fistula site.


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8 :

Hint : Brain swelling = neuro changes

Correct Answers:

  • Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness and twitching


Rationale :

🔶 Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome (DDS) occurs when rapid removal of urea during hemodialysis causes osmotic shifts that lead to cerebral edema.

🔶 This complication is most likely to happen during the first few dialysis treatments or when blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are very high.

🔶 Clinical manifestations include headache, nausea, restlessness, confusion, decreased level of consciousness, twitching, and seizures as the brain swells from fluid shifts.

🔶 Prompt recognition is critical, as severe DDS can progress to coma and death if not treated quickly by slowing or stopping dialysis.


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9 :

Hint : H. pylori = ulcer culprit

Correct Answers:

  • A bacterial infection


Rationale :

⭐ The primary cause of peptic ulcers is infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori), a bacterium that damages the protective mucosal lining of the stomach and duodenum.

⭐ The weakened mucosa becomes more susceptible to injury from gastric acid and pepsin, resulting in ulcer formation.

⭐ While factors like stress, caffeine, and spicy foods may aggravate symptoms or delay healing, they are not the root cause.

⭐ Treatment of peptic ulcers includes antibiotic therapy to eradicate H. pylori, along with acid-reducing medications and lifestyle modifications.


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10 :

Hint : Protein → ammonia buildup

Correct Answers:

  • Meats


Rationale :

⚫ In hepatic encephalopathy, the failing liver cannot adequately metabolize ammonia, which is produced during the breakdown of dietary proteins (commonly from meats).

⚫ High protein intake worsens ammonia accumulation, leading to confusion, altered mental status, and other neurologic signs of encephalopathy.

⚫ For this reason, protein-rich foods such as meats may be temporarily restricted during acute episodes, while ensuring nutritional needs are still met with other food sources.

⚫ Once the encephalopathy improves, moderate protein is usually reintroduced to prevent malnutrition, often using vegetable proteins or supplements that are easier to process.


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Total Questions: 10

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