1 :

2 months ago:
 Client is seeking help for constant feelings of worry and anxiety. Client cares for two parents who have multiple health conditions and three school-age children. Client reports difficulty sleeping, muscle tension, and feeling "on edge most of the time." 
Today, 1100: 
Client tearful. States feelings of anxiety are worse even though they are attending cognitive behavioral therapy sessions. Expressed fearfulness of taking medication because of the risk of dependency but agrees to try medication therapy.

2 months ago: 
Memantine Client presents with manifestations of anxiety. Provider prescribed cognitive behavioral therapy and sessions with a psychologist.
Schedule follow-up appointment in 2 months. 
Paroxetine 
Escitalopram 
Venlafaxine 

Today, 1200:
Axis I generalized anxiety disorder. Pharmacological treatment prescribed. Adhering to prescribed cognitive behavioral therapy sessions


Select 4 medications that the provider could prescribe for treatment of the client.


Answer Options

Hint : 👉 SSRIs & SNRIs are first-line for GAD

Correct Answers:

  • Duloxetine
  • Paroxetine
  • Escitalopram
  • Venlafaxine


Rationale :

🔷 Duloxetine Duloxetine is an SNRI (serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor) effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).

🔷 It helps reduce both psychological symptoms (excessive worry) and physical symptoms (muscle tension).

🔷 FDA-approved for GAD in adults and often well tolerated.

🔷 Paroxetine Paroxetine is an SSRI commonly prescribed for anxiety disorders, including GAD.

🔷 It increases serotonin in the brain, improving mood and reducing anxiety. It is considered a first- line pharmacologic treatment for GAD.

🔷 Escitalopram Escitalopram is another SSRI, effective and FDA-approved for GAD. Known for having a favorable side effect profile compared to some other SSRIs.

🔷 Reduces excessive worry, restlessness, and improves sleep.

🔷 Venlafaxine Venlafaxine is an SNRI effective in treating GAD, especially when symptoms include physical tension and fatigue.

🔷 Often prescribed when SSRIs are not effective or not tolerated. Provides both antidepressant and anti-anxiety benefits.

🔷 Risperidone → An atypical antipsychotic, used for schizophrenia, bipolar, or adjunct in depression not first-line for GAD.

🔷 Memantine → NMDA receptor antagonist, used for Alzheimer’s disease, not anxiety.


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2 :

Yesterday, 1900: 
A client presents to the emergency department via emergency medical services after a single-vehicle car crash. The client reports severe left leg pain. 
1945: 
Left leg immobilized with full leg splint. Orthopedics service at the client's bedside. No immediate plans for surgery. The client is admitted for further care and treatment. 
Today, 2000: 
The nurse is called to the client's room by the client's partner. The partner states, "All of a sudden they are angry and irritated. I've never seen them like this before.

Yesterday, 1900:
Blood pressure 129/90 mm Hg 
Heart rate 105/min 
Respiratory rate 18/min 
Temperature 37.3° C (99.1° F) 
Oxygen saturation 99% on room air 
Today, 2000: 
Blood pressure 134/84 mm Hg 
Heart rate 110/min 
Respiratory rate 24/min 
Temperature 38.3° C (100.9° F) 
Oxygen saturation 92% on room air

Yesterday, 1900:
General: uncomfortable, diaphoretic Cardiopulmonary: S1, S2, no murmur. Breath sounds clear bilaterally.
Musculoskeletal: crepitus to left upper leg when palpated 
Skin: warm and dry, no open skin to the left upper leg Neuro: alert and oriented x 4. Today, 2000: 
General: restless, irritable Cardiopulmonary: S1, 52, no murmur. Faint crackles bilaterally Musculoskeletal: left leg fully splinted, capillary refill less than seconds 
Skin: a few petechial lesions noted to the upper chest 
Neuro: alert, oriented to person and place only Diagnostic Results Yesterday, 
1930:
Left leg x-ray: transverse femur fracture


Click to highlight below the findings that 'indicate a potential complication of the client's injury. To deselect a finding. click on the finding again.


General: uncomfortable, diaphoretic Cardiopulmonary: S1, S2, no murmur. Breath sounds clear bilaterally. Musculoskeletal: crepitus to left upper leg when palpated Skin: warm and dry, no open skin to the left upper leg Neuro: alert and oriented x 4. Today, 2000: General: restless, irritable Cardiopulmonary: S1, 52, no murmur. Faint crackles bilaterally Musculoskeletal: left leg fully splinted, capillary refill less than seconds Skin: a few petechial lesions noted to the upper chest Neuro: alert, oriented to person and place only Diagnostic Results Yesterday, 1930: Left leg x-ray: transverse femur fracture Blood pressure 134/84 mm Hg Heart rate 110/min Respiratory rate 24/min Temperature 38.3° C (100.9° F) Oxygen saturation 92% on room air

Hint : Fat embolism = triad of hypoxemia + neuro changes + petechiae

Correct Highlights :
  • restless, irritable Cardiopulmonary
  • Oxygen saturation 92% on room air
  • Temperature 38.3° C (100.9° F)
  • few petechial lesions noted to the upper chest
  • oriented to person and place only
  • Faint crackles bilaterally

Rationale :

👍The client is showing clinical signs consistent with fat embolism syndrome (FES), a serious complication of long bone fractures such as a femur fracture.

👍The findings of restlessness, irritability, and disorientation reflect neurologic changes caused by hypoxemia, as fat globules obstruct cerebral circulation.

👍The drop in oxygen saturation to 92% with new bilateral crackles indicates pulmonary involvement, where emboli and fluid impair alveolar gas exchange.

👍The fever of 38.3 °C (100.9 °F) represents a systemic inflammatory response triggered by fat emboli circulating in the bloodstream.

👍The presence of petechiae on the chest is the classic hallmark sign of FES, caused by dermal capillary occlusion.

👍Together, these symptoms form the classic triad of fat embolism syndrome—hypoxemia, neurologic changes, and petechiae— confirming this as the potential complication of the client’s injury.


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3 :

Last week, 0800: 
The client states, "I have been having diarrhea for months. I've tried diet changes and loperamide, but nothing seems to help." The client also reports a recent 2.3 kg (5 lb) weight loss and occasional low-grade fevers. 
Physical Examination: 
General: no acute distress 
HEENT: mucous membranes dry 
Respiratory: breath sounds clear bilaterally 
Cardiovascular: S1, S2 no murmur 
Gastrointestinal: decreased bowel sounds, mild right lower quadrant tenderness. No rebound tenderness, no guarding.

Last week, 0800: 
Blood pressure 108/68 mm Hg 
Respiratory rate 18/min 
Heart rate 99/min 
Temperature 38.1°C (100.6°F)

Last week, 0830: 
Hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL (14 to 18 g/dL) 
Hematocrit 33% (42% to 52%) 
Iron saturation 9% (20% to 50%) 
Hemoccult positive 
Clostridia toxin assay negative 
Culture and sensitivity negative

Today, 1000: 
Magnetic resonance imaging: lesions and ulcers with a cobblestone appearance noted in intestinal walls, no masses. 
Colonoscopy: inflammation and a thickened bowel wall with deep ulcerations, relatively normal mucosa in ascending colon.


Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client’s progress.


Hint : 👉 Crohn’s = autoimmune gut inflammation + malabsorption + cobblestoning

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Crohn’s disease
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: Educate the client about the purpose of immunosuppressants and Encourage the client to eat foods high in probiotics.
  • Blank 3 Correct Option: Client’s body weight and Serum albumin

Rationale :

🎗️The client’s chronic diarrhea, weight loss, anemia, low iron, and positive hemoccult indicate a long-standing inflammatory process with malabsorption and blood loss.

🎗️The MRI and colonoscopy findings of cobblestone mucosa, bowel wall thickening, deep ulcerations, and skip lesions are classic hallmarks of 🎗️Crohn’s disease, distinguishing it from other gastrointestinal conditions.

🎗️Because Crohn’s is an autoimmune disorder, management includes immunosuppressant therapy to control inflammation and prevent progression, making patient education about these medications essential.

🎗️Nutritional compromise is common due to poor absorption and intestinal blood loss; therefore, dietary guidance, including the use of probiotics, supports intestinal balance and symptom relief.

🎗️Monitoring the client’s body weight provides a direct measure of nutritional status, while serum albumin reflects protein stores and ongoing disease impact.

🎗️Together, these findings and interventions highlight the importance of both medical management and nutritional monitoring in controlling Crohn’s disease and preventing complications.


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4 :

Hint : 👉GERD = avoid acidic foods

Correct Answers:

  • Tomatoes


Rationale :

🔷 Tomatoes are acidic and can worsen GERD symptoms by irritating the esophageal lining and lowering the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) tone.

🔷 Acidic and spicy foods (tomatoes, citrus, coffee, chocolate, fatty foods) should be avoided.

🔷 Apples, bananas, and potatoes are generally safe and not strongly acidic.

🔷 Dietary education is central to non-pharmacologic GERD management.

🔷 Patients should also eat smaller meals and avoid lying down after eating.


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5 :

Hint : 👉Neuropathy pain = pregabalin

Correct Answers:

  • Pregabalin


Rationale :

🔶 Pregabalin is an anticonvulsant/neuropathic pain agent used to treat diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

🔶 It relieves tingling, burning, and stabbing pain caused by nerve damage.

🔶 Labetalol is an antihypertensive, eplerenone is an aldosterone antagonist, and ondansetron is an antiemetic—none treat neuropathy.

🔶 Pregabalin improves quality of life by reducing chronic pain and discomfort.

🔶 Monitoring includes sedation and dizziness as side effects.


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6 :

Hint : 👉 CABG exercise = stop if HR ↑ >20 bpm

Correct Answers:

  • "Stop exercising if your heart rate increases by 20 beats per minute from baseline.”


Rationale :

💠 Post–CABG patients need gradual, safe exercise to improve cardiac conditioning.

💠 A HR rise of more than 20 bpm from baseline signals overexertion and potential ischemia.

💠 They should stop activity if angina occurs—not resume after resting.

💠 Walking should start short and gradually progress, not half a mile twice daily initially.

💠 Sun exposure is not a restriction unless on photosensitizing meds.


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7 :

Hint : 👉 Hemiplegia = frequent short exercise

Correct Answers:

  • Initiate frequent, short periods of exercise throughout the day.


Rationale :

🔷 For clients with hemiplegia, frequent short sessions prevent contractures, improve circulation, and build endurance.

🔷 Once-per-day ROM is inadequate; exercise must be routine and consistent.

🔷 ROM should continue even if mild tightness occurs, with gentle stretching to maintain function.

🔷 Repetitive movements are actually encouraged for neuro-retraining.

🔷 This approach prevents complications such as stiffness, weakness, and skin breakdown.


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8 :

Hint : 👉Red, swollen, tender skin = cellulitis

Correct Answers:

  • Cellulitis


Rationale :

🔶 Findings of erythema, edema, tenderness, warmth, and pain indicate cellulitis, a bacterial skin infection.

🔶 Dermatophytosis is fungal (ringworm) and not usually red/swollen.

🔶 Herpes zoster presents with vesicles along a dermatomal pattern, not diffuse swelling.

🔶 Contact dermatitis is allergic, often itchy with rash, not tender with warmth.

🔶 Cellulitis requires prompt antibiotics to prevent systemic spread.


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9 :

Hint : 👉 Hyperlipidemia diet = omega-3 good

Correct Answers:

  • "I will include omega-3 fatty acids in my diet."


Rationale :
💠 Omega-3 fatty acids (from fish, flaxseed, walnuts) reduce triglycerides and improve lipid profile. 💠 Trans fats and saturated fats worsen hyperlipidemia and should be avoided. 💠 Red meat is high in saturated fat and cholesterol, not recommended. 💠 Dietary changes are the first step in managing hyperlipidemia before or with medications. 💠 Lifestyle changes also include exercise and weight control.

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10 :

Hint : 👉GDM baby risk = hypoglycemia

Correct Answers:

  • "Gestational diabetes increases the risk of your baby having hypoglycemia after birth."


Rationale :

🔷 In gestational diabetes, excess maternal glucose crosses the placenta, stimulating the fetus to produce high insulin.

🔷 After birth, maternal glucose supply stops, but insulin remains high → neonatal hypoglycemia.

🔷 Other risks: macrosomia, birth trauma, respiratory distress—not hemorrhagic disease, low birth weight, or congenital anomalies like cleft lip.

🔷 Neonatal monitoring includes frequent blood glucose checks after delivery.

🔷 Early feeding and IV glucose may be required.


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Total Questions: 10

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