1 :

Hint : 🛡️ Boosts immune attack

Correct Answers:

  • “This medication stimulates your immune system to attack and destroy cancer cells.”


Rationale :

👉 Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is a nonspecific immunotherapy that works by activating and proliferating T-lymphocytes and natural killer (NK) cells, which are the body’s own immune defense mechanisms.

👉 Unlike targeted therapies, IL-2 does not act directly on the cancer cell. Instead, it boosts the patient’s immune system, enabling it to recognize and attack cancer cells more effectively.

👉 IL-2 has been particularly used in metastatic melanoma and renal cell carcinoma, where immune activation can improve survival outcomes.

👉 Key nursing teaching includes monitoring for capillary leak syndrome, hypotension, and flu-like symptoms, as these are common adverse effects of IL-2 therapy.


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2 :

Hint : 🟠 Orange body fluids

Correct Answers:

  • Orange colored urine


Rationale :

✔️Rifampin, an antitubercular medication, commonly causes orange-red discoloration of body fluids such as urine, sweat, saliva, and tears.

✔️This effect is harmless and expected, but clients should be instructed so they do not become alarmed when it occurs.

✔️Rifampin is a potent hepatic enzyme inducer, so it can decrease the effectiveness of other drugs (e.g., oral contraceptives, anticoagulants).

✔️Nurses should also teach about possible side effects like hepatotoxicity (monitor for jaundice, dark urine, fatigue) and the importance of adherence to the full TB regimen to prevent resistance.


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3 :

Hint : ✂️ Cut it out early

Correct Answers:

  • Surgical excision


Rationale :

🌟For malignant melanoma, especially when it is superficial and localized, the treatment of choice is wide surgical excision. This involves removing the lesion along with a margin of normal tissue to ensure complete removal of malignant cells.

🌟Early surgical removal offers the best chance for cure before the melanoma spreads to regional lymph nodes or distant organs.

🌟Other therapies like radiation or chemotherapy are typically reserved for advanced or metastatic melanoma, not superficial lesions.

🌟Cryosurgery is mainly used for non-melanoma skin cancers such as actinic keratosis or superficial basal cell carcinoma, not melanoma.


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4 :

Hint : Spirometry measures severity 🫁

Correct Answers:

  • Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)


Rationale :

✦ Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), specifically spirometry, are the gold standard for diagnosing and grading the severity of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

✦ The most important measurement is the FEV1/FVC ratio; a value less than 70% confirms airflow limitation consistent with COPD.

✦ The severity of COPD is then graded using the percent predicted FEV1 (mild, moderate, severe, very severe).

✦ Chest X-ray may help rule out other conditions (e.g., pneumonia, lung cancer) but it does not grade COPD severity.

✦ CBC is used to check for polycythemia (secondary to chronic hypoxemia) but not for grading COPD.

✦ ECG may detect right-sided heart strain from cor pulmonale but is not used in COPD grading.


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5 :

Hint : Myeloablative destroys marrow; immune suppression prevents GVHD 🧬

Correct Answers:

  • “You may receive drugs to suppress your immune system after the transplant"
  • “The high-dose chemotherapy Will completely destroy your bone marrow before transplant."
  • “You are at risk for a complication, Graft-Versus-Host-Disease, where the donor cells attack your body.”
  • “This type of transplant uses your own stem cells.”


Rationale :

🔹 “You may receive drugs to suppress your immune system after the transplant.”

📌Following an allogeneic stem cell transplant, the patient is at risk for the donor cells attacking the recipient’s tissues (graft-versus-host disease, GVHD)

📌To minimize this immune reaction, immunosuppressive drugs such as tacrolimus, cyclosporine, or methotrexate are prescribed.

📌These medications reduce the chance of graft rejection and GVHD but also leave the patient highly susceptible to opportunistic infections.

📌Education about adherence, monitoring for side effects, and infection prevention is essential.

🔹 “The high-dose chemotherapy will completely destroy your bone marrow before transplant.”

📌In a myeloablative regimen, very high doses of chemotherapy (sometimes combined with radiation) are given to eradicate all bone marrow cells.

📌This eliminates the patient’s diseased marrow (e.g., leukemia cells) and creates space for donor stem cells to engraft.

📌Because this process wipes out the patient’s hematopoietic system, the individual becomes extremely vulnerable to infection, anemia, and bleeding until engraftment occurs.

📌Close monitoring and protective isolation are needed during this period.

🔹 “You are at risk for a complication, Graft-Versus-Host-Disease, where the donor cells attack your body.”

📌GVHD occurs because the donor’s immune cells recognize the recipient’s tissues as foreign and mount an immune attack.

📌It most commonly affects the skin, liver, and gastrointestinal tract, causing symptoms such as rash, jaundice, abdominal pain, and diarrhea.

📌GVHD can be acute (within 100 days) or chronic (after 100 days) post-transplant, and its prevention is a central focus of post-transplant care.

📌Patients and caregivers must be educated to report symptoms promptly to ensure early intervention.


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6 :

Hint : Trigger control prevents attacks 🌬️

Correct Answers:

  • "Eliminating allergens that irritate my lungs can help me avoid getting an asthma attack."


Rationale :

🔹 Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease that is often triggered by allergens and environmental irritants such as pollen, dust mites, smoke, pet dander, and mold.

🔹 Identifying and eliminating or reducing exposure to known triggers is one of the most effective strategies for preventing asthma exacerbations.

🔹 Good asthma control allows patients to live normal, active lives, including participating in sports, as long as their condition is well managed with medications and avoidance strategies.

🔹 Statements about morning cough/shortness of breath being normal or believing asthma limits physical activity show misunderstanding of asthma management.


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7 :

Hint : Time ⏱️, distance 📏, shielding 🛡️ = radiation safety

Correct Answers:

  • Instruct the patient to stay in a private room with appropriate radiation signage.
  • Educate visitors to remain at least 6 feet away from the patient and lit-nit visits to 30 minutes.
  • Use a lead shield when providing direct care and cluster nursing tasks to minimize exposure.


Rationale :

🔹 Instruct the patient to stay in a private room with appropriate radiation signage

📌During LDR brachytherapy, the radioactive source remains inside the patient for several days.

📌A private room with radiation signage (“Caution: Radioactive Materials”) helps protect staff and visitors by controlling access.

📌This precaution reduces unnecessary exposure to radiation and ensures compliance with institutional safety protocols.

🔹 Educate visitors to remain at least 6 feet away from the patient and limit visits to 30 minutes

📌Distance and time are two key principles of radiation safety. Visitors should stay ≥6 feet away from the source and minimize exposure by limiting visits.

📌Restricting time prevents excessive radiation absorption while still allowing emotional support.

📌Children and pregnant visitors are typically restricted to prevent harm from radiation exposure.

🔹 Use a lead shield when providing direct care and cluster nursing tasks to minimize exposure

📌Healthcare workers should use lead aprons or shields and plan care to bundle nursing activities so time spent in close proximity is minimized.

📌This reduces cumulative exposure while ensuring necessary patient care is provided.

📌Staff should maintain as much distance as possible and avoid lingering at the bedside.

🔹 Provide the patient with verbal and written information about the radiation source, expected duration, and safety precautions

📌Patients may feel anxious or isolated during brachytherapy. Clear education helps reduce fear and promotes cooperation with safety measures.

📌Written instructions also serve as reinforcement, ensuring the patient understands restrictions and staff safety protocols.

📌Education empowers the patient and their family to feel engaged in their own care plan.


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8 :

Hint : Colonoscopy + LFTs = colon cancer follow-up 🩺

Correct Answers:

  • Referral for colonoscopy and liver function tests


Rationale :

🔹 After completing treatment for colon cancer, the survivorship care plan should focus on monitoring for recurrence and detecting metastasis early, particularly in the liver, which is the most common site of colon cancer spread.

🔹 Colonoscopy is recommended at regular intervals (usually within 1 year after resection, then every 3–5 years) to check for recurrence or new polyps.

🔹 Liver function tests (LFTs) are appropriate because abnormalities may signal metastatic disease in the liver.

🔹 Routine chest X-rays are not standard unless symptoms suggest pulmonary spread.

🔹 Monthly CBCs are not required unless the patient had chemotherapy-induced marrow suppression and still needs close follow-up.

🔹 Encouraging physical activity (not restricting it) actually reduces fatigue, improves quality of life, and lowers recurrence risk.


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9 :

Hint : True benign = harmless growths (fibrous, sac-like, scar tissue) 🌱

Correct Answers:

  • Dermatofibroma
  • Cysts
  • Keloids


Rationale :

🔹 Dermatofibroma

♦️Dermatofibromas are common benign fibrous nodules that often appear on the arms and legs.

♦️They usually develop after minor trauma, such as an insect bite or small injury, that triggers overgrowth of fibroblasts in the skin.

♦️On exam, they are firm, dome-shaped lesions that can be pigmented (brown, red, or tan) and may dimple inward when pinched.

♦️They are not harmful, rarely grow beyond a few millimeters, and don’t become cancerous.

♦️Management is usually unnecessary unless they cause pain, irritation, or cosmetic concerns.

🔹 Cysts

♦️Cysts are benign, sac-like growths filled with fluid, keratin, or sebum. The most common skin cysts are epidermoid cysts and pilar cysts.

♦️They are usually smooth, round, and movable under the skin and may occur on the face, scalp, trunk, or extremities.

♦️Cysts are not malignant but can sometimes become inflamed or infected, leading to tenderness, swelling, and drainage.

♦️Treatment is not always necessary, though surgical removal may be performed if they are bothersome.

🔹 Keloids

♦️Keloids are an excessive overgrowth of scar tissue that occurs at the site of a previous wound, surgery, burn, or even acne.

♦️They form due to abnormal collagen production and extend beyond the original wound margins, unlike hypertrophic scars which remain within boundaries.

♦️They are benign, but can be large, raised, shiny, and uncomfortable, causing itching or pain.

♦️Treatment options include corticosteroid injections, cryotherapy, laser treatment, or surgical excision, though recurrence is common.


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10 :

Hint : Shock signs after surgery = call provider 🚨

Correct Answers:

  • Notify the healthcare provider about possible surgical Site infection and internal hemorrhage and obtain orders.


Rationale :

🔹 The client’s assessment shows redness, warmth, and fever (38.3°C/100.9°F), suggesting a surgical site infection.

🔹 More critically, the client has tachycardia, thready pulse, difficulty obtaining blood pressure, and lethargy—all signs of hemodynamic instability and possible sepsis or internal hemorrhage.

🔹 This combination indicates the patient may be progressing toward septic shock or hypovolemic shock, both of which are life-threatening and require immediate provider intervention.

🔹 Administering analgesics or oral fluids, or encouraging ambulation, does not address the acute deterioration and would delay life-saving treatment.

🔹 The priority is to immediately notify the healthcare provider for urgent evaluation, blood cultures, IV fluids, antibiotics, and possibly surgical intervention.


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Total Questions: 10

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