1 :

Hint : 🧠 Reduce aggression safely

Correct Answers:

  • Provide opportunities for physical exercise.


Rationale :

✍️ Physical exercise provides a safe and effective outlet for tension, frustration, and excess energy that may contribute to aggressive behavior.

✍️ Regular exercise can help decrease anxiety, improve mood, and reduce the likelihood of violent outbursts.

✍️ The nurse should encourage activities appropriate to the client's physical ability, such as walking, using exercise equipment, or participating in recreational activities.

✍️ Offering structured physical activity is a nonpharmacological intervention that promotes self-control and emotional regulation.

✍️ The nurse should also observe for early signs of escalating agitation and intervene before aggressive behavior occurs.

✍️ Maintaining a calm, nonthreatening approach and setting clear behavioral limits further helps prevent violence.

✍️ Providing opportunities for exercise supports a therapeutic environment while reducing the risk of injury to the client and others.

✍️ Physical exercise is an appropriate nursing intervention to help manage a client with a history of violent behavior.


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2 :

Week 1:

Client has a history of paraplegia following a T10 spinal cord injury.

Unable to move or feel sensation below T10 level bilaterally.

Week 1:

Turned and repositioned every 2 hr. Transferred to chair using a hydraulic lift. Skin occasionally moist and warm. Incontinent of urine occasionally.

Nutritional intake: Client eats most of every meal.

Braden scale for predicting pressure injury: 15

Week 1:

Post void bladder scan for residual urine 90 mL (less than 100 mL)

Urine specific gravity 1.012 (1.005 to 1.030)

Week 2:

Post void bladder scan for residual urine 80 mL (less than 100 mL)

Urine specific gravity 1.008 (1.005 to 1.030)


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is at risk for developing due to the client's .


Hint : 🛏️ Moisture increases skin breakdown

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: pressure injury
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: urinary incontinence

Rationale :

Pressure injury

♦️ The client has paraplegia and cannot move or feel sensation below the T10 level, creating prolonged pressure over bony prominences.

♦️ Loss of sensation prevents the client from recognizing discomfort that would normally prompt a position change.

♦️ The client depends on caregivers and a hydraulic lift for transfers, confirming significant limitations in independent mobility.

♦️ A Braden Scale score of 15 indicates an increased risk for developing a pressure injury.

♦️ The client’s skin is sometimes described as moist and warm, which makes it more vulnerable to friction, shear, and maceration.

♦️ Repositioning every 2 hours is an appropriate preventive measure, but it does not completely eliminate the risk.

♦️ Adequate nutritional intake supports tissue repair and skin integrity, although immobility and moisture remain significant threats.

♦️ The assessment findings therefore identify pressure injury as the complication for which this client is most at risk.

Urinary incontinence

♦️ Urinary incontinence repeatedly exposes the skin to moisture and irritating substances contained in urine.

♦️ Prolonged moisture softens the outer skin layer and causes maceration, making the skin easier to damage.

♦️ Moisture also increases friction when the client is repositioned or transferred.

♦️ The client cannot independently move away from wet bedding because of paraplegia.

♦️ Reduced sensation may prevent the client from recognizing that the skin or linens are wet.

♦️ The nurse should provide prompt incontinence care, apply a moisture barrier, and keep the skin clean and dry.

♦️ Frequent skin assessment is especially important around the sacrum, buttocks, hips, and heels.

♦️ Urinary incontinence is the listed factor that most directly contributes to the client’s risk for pressure injury.

❌ Dehydration

♦️ The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.012 in week 1 and 1.008 in week 2, both within the expected range of 1.005–1.030.

♦️ The findings do not show concentrated urine or other evidence suggesting inadequate hydration.

♦️ Dehydration is therefore not the complication most strongly supported by the assessment data.

❌ Urinary tract infection

♦️ Urinary incontinence can increase the risk of a urinary tract infection, but no current findings indicate infection.

♦️ The client has normal post-void residual volumes and no reported fever, dysuria, cloudy urine, or abnormal urine concentration.

♦️ The scenario more directly supports a pressure injury risk from immobility and moisture.

❌ Urine specific gravity

♦️ The urine specific gravity values are within the stated normal range and do not indicate dehydration or impaired urine concentration.

♦️ A normal urine specific gravity does not directly cause pressure-related skin breakdown.

♦️ Urinary incontinence, rather than urine specific gravity, exposes the skin to damaging moisture.

❌ Post-void residual urine

♦️ The post-void residual volumes of 90 mL and 80 mL are below 100 mL and are identified as normal in the scenario.

♦️ These values do not indicate significant urinary retention or incomplete bladder emptying.

♦️ A normal residual volume does not explain the client’s pressure injury risk as directly as urinary incontinence.


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3 :

Hint : 👶 Safe sleep starts with the crib

Correct Answers:

  • "I should use a firm mattress in my baby's crib."


Rationale :

🌹 A firm mattress provides a safe, flat sleeping surface and significantly reduces the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).

🌹 Infants should always sleep on a firm, well-fitting mattress covered by a fitted sheet with no gaps between the mattress and crib sides.

🌹 The crib should be free of pillows, blankets, bumper pads, stuffed animals, and other soft objects that could obstruct the infant's airway.

🌹 The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends placing infants on their backs for every sleep, including naps and nighttime sleep.

🌹 A safe sleep environment helps reduce the risk of accidental suffocation, entrapment, and strangulation.

🌹 Parents should share a room, but not the same bed, with their infant for at least the first 6 months when possible.

🌹 Reinforcing safe sleep practices is an essential part of postpartum teaching.

🌹 Using a firm crib mattress is a key recommendation for promoting safe infant sleep.


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4 :

Hint : 📝 Provider explains the procedure

Correct Answers:

  • "The provider will discuss the risks of the surgery with you."


Rationale :

♦️ The healthcare provider performing the procedure is responsible for explaining the purpose, risks, benefits, and alternatives of the surgery.

♦️ This discussion allows the client to make a voluntary and informed decision before signing the consent form.

♦️ The nurse may witness the signature and verify that the client appears competent and is signing without coercion.

♦️ The nurse should also confirm that the client has had an opportunity to ask questions.

♦️ Any unanswered questions about the surgery should be referred back to the provider.

♦️ The client must understand the information well enough to make an informed choice.

♦️ The adult sibling may be present only if the client wishes, but the provider must speak directly with the client whenever the client has decision-making capacity.

♦️ The statement about the provider discussing surgical risks correctly describes the informed-consent process.


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5 :

Hint : 💊 Digoxin affects vision

Correct Answers:

  • Blurred vision


Rationale :

🖍️ Digoxin toxicity can cause visual disturbances, including blurred vision, yellow-green vision, and seeing halos around lights.

🖍️ These findings occur because elevated digoxin levels affect the central nervous system and retinal function.

🖍️ The nurse should also monitor for nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, fatigue, and confusion.

🖍️ Cardiac manifestations may include bradycardia, heart block, or other dysrhythmias.

🖍️ The client’s apical pulse should be assessed before administration, and the medication should be withheld according to prescribed parameters.

🖍️ Serum digoxin levels, potassium levels, and kidney function may require monitoring because renal impairment and hypokalemia increase toxicity risk.

🖍️ Any new visual change should be reported promptly because it may signal an adverse or toxic effect.

🖍️ Blurred vision is the expected adverse effect associated with digoxin.


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6 :

Hint : 🚨 Watch postoperative perfusion

Correct Answers:

  • Urine output of 40 mL in the last 2 hr.


Rationale :

📗 An output of 40 mL over 2 hours equals only 20 mL/hr, which is below the expected minimum adult urine output of approximately 30 mL/hr.

📗 Decreased urine output may indicate hypovolemia, reduced cardiac output, or inadequate renal perfusion following major surgery.

📗 A thoracotomy can involve significant fluid shifts and blood loss, increasing the risk of postoperative circulatory compromise.

📗 The nurse should assess the client’s blood pressure, heart rate, fluid balance, and catheter patency while promptly reporting the finding.

📗 Persistent oliguria can progress to acute kidney injury if inadequate perfusion is not corrected.

📗 Urine output provides an important measure of overall organ perfusion and hemodynamic stability.

📗 Early provider notification allows evaluation for fluid replacement, laboratory testing, or other treatment.

📗 Urine output of 20 mL/hr is the priority finding because it may reflect impaired circulation and renal perfusion.


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7 :

Hint : 🧠 Recall pleasant life memories

Correct Answers:

  • A client who has Alzheimer's disease


Rationale :

⚽ Reminiscence therapy encourages clients to discuss past life experiences, often using photographs, music, familiar objects, or personal stories to stimulate long-term memory.

⚽ Clients with Alzheimer's disease often retain remote memories longer than recent memories, making this therapy particularly beneficial.

⚽ Discussing meaningful past events can improve self-esteem, reduce anxiety, and promote social interaction.

⚽ Reminiscence therapy helps maintain a sense of identity and provides emotional comfort for clients with dementia.

⚽ Family members can actively participate by bringing photo albums, favorite music, or cherished keepsakes to facilitate conversations.

⚽ The nurse should encourage the client to share memories without correcting inaccurate details, as the goal is comfort rather than factual accuracy.

⚽ This therapy supports cognitive stimulation while strengthening communication between the client, family, and caregivers.

⚽ Reminiscence therapy is most appropriate for clients with Alzheimer's disease because it focuses on preserved long-term memories.


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8 :

Hint : 🧠 Swallowing problems after stroke

Correct Answers:

  • Speech-language pathologist


Rationale :

👉 A speech-language pathologist (SLP) is the healthcare professional who evaluates and treats dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) following conditions such as a stroke.

👉 The SLP performs a comprehensive swallowing assessment to determine the client's risk for aspiration and recommends the safest diet consistency.

👉 The evaluation may include bedside swallowing assessments and specialized studies such as a modified barium swallow or videofluoroscopic swallowing study.

👉 The SLP teaches swallowing exercises, compensatory techniques, and safe positioning strategies to improve swallowing function.

👉 Recommendations may include thickened liquids, pureed foods, or other texture modifications to reduce aspiration risk.

👉 Early referral helps prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia, malnutrition, and dehydration.

👉 Collaboration between the nurse and the SLP is essential to ensure the client receives safe nutrition and hydration.

👉 A speech-language pathologist is the most appropriate referral for a client experiencing difficulty swallowing after a stroke.


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9 :

Hint : 🫁 Airborne isolation for TB

Correct Answers:

  • Place the client in a private room.


Rationale :

🌸 Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted through airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air for prolonged periods.

🌸 Clients with suspected or confirmed TB should be placed in a private airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) with negative-pressure ventilation to prevent the spread of infectious particles.

🌸 Healthcare workers should wear a fit-tested N95 respirator or higher-level respirator when entering the room.

🌸 The client should remain in the isolation room except when essential diagnostic or therapeutic procedures are required.

🌸 Prompt implementation of airborne precautions helps protect other clients, visitors, and healthcare personnel from exposure.

🌸 The nurse should also encourage respiratory hygiene, including covering the mouth when coughing and proper disposal of tissues.

🌸 Airborne precautions remain in place until the client is no longer considered infectious according to facility policy.

🌸 Placing the client in a private negative-pressure room is the priority intervention to prevent TB transmission.


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10 :

Hint : 🚻 Establish the voiding pattern first

Correct Answers:

  • "Record your urination times for 24 hours before beginning the program."


Rationale :

✏️ A voiding diary establishes the client’s usual pattern of urinary frequency, urgency, leakage, and fluid intake before bladder training begins.

✏️ Recording urination times helps the healthcare team identify how long the client can normally wait between voiding episodes.

✏️ The initial toileting schedule can then be individualized according to the client’s existing pattern rather than using an arbitrary interval.

✏️ Bladder training gradually increases the time between voiding episodes to improve bladder capacity and control.

✏️ The client should also record episodes of urgency or incontinence to evaluate progress during the program.

✏️ Accurate baseline information helps determine whether the intervention is improving urinary control.

✏️ A bladder diary is commonly recommended as part of evaluating and managing urinary frequency and incontinence.

✏️ Recording urination times before starting provides the information needed to create a safe, individualized bladder-training schedule.


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Total Questions: 10

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