1 :

Admission

Client admission interview completed with client and their partner. Partner reports client has been exhibiting alterations in speech and paranoid thoughts for the past few days. Client denies suicidal thoughts or ideation. Client is restless, appears to be listening to and looking at people that are not visible to the nurse.

Day 2

Client has been drinking excessive amounts of water from the bathroom faucet. Discussed with client the need to decrease water intake. Staff members notified to monitor client's fluid intake. Client continues to appear to be listening to voices the nurse cannot hear.

Day 3

Client refused to take prescribed aripiprazole this morning. Ate 50% of breakfast. Client pacing in the hallway, quietly mumbling to self. Nurse approached client and client whispered, "They say I'm worthless and that I need to be gone forever. They are going to help me plan a way to do it." Nurse walked in the hallway with client and refocused them on reality-oriented conversation. Client now watching television in the day room with peers.

Admission

Client diagnosed with schizophrenia approximately 8 years ago.

Client has had two prior hospitalizations for psychosis, both due to noncompliance with prescribed medications.

No prior surgeries, no known allergies.

Aripiprazole 15 mg PO once daily


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is at highest risk foras evidenced by the client's.


Hint : 🧠 Commands to die = danger.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: self-harm
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: command hallucinations

Rationale :

🔷 The client reports voices saying they are “worthless” and that they need to be “gone forever,” which signals suicidal content.

🔷 Hearing voices that are directing the client to act is a classic sign of command hallucinations, which significantly increases risk for self-harm.

🔷 The statement that “they are going to help me plan a way to do it” indicates intent and planning, making this an immediate safety priority.

🔷 In schizophrenia, auditory hallucinations with self-harm commands require rapid interventions such as safety precautions, close observation, and provider notification.

🔷 Because the client also refused aripiprazole, symptom control is reduced, further elevating the risk for impulsive self-injury.

Hyponatremia

🔷Excessive water intake can contribute to hyponatremia, but the client’s most urgent cue is the presence of self-harm commands.

🔷Safety threats from suicidal command hallucinations take priority over potential electrolyte imbalance.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

🔷NMS is associated with antipsychotic use and presents with fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered mental status, which are not described here.

🔷The client actually refused the antipsychotic, making NMS less supported by the current findings.

Water intake

🔷Excess water intake is concerning and can lead to electrolyte disturbances, but it does not indicate the highest immediate risk compared with direct self-harm content.

🔷The most dangerous evidence is the client’s verbalized command hallucinations to die.

Prescribed aripiprazole

🔷A prescribed antipsychotic itself does not prove the client’s highest risk; risk is shown by current clinical cues.

🔷The stronger evidence is the client describing voices directing suicide-related actions.


Distractor Analysis :

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2 :

Hint : 🧼 Hand hygiene stops fecal spread.

Correct Answers:

  • Provide staff with alcohol-based antibacterial hand gel.


Rationale :

🔷 Escherichia coli (E. coli) spreads primarily through the fecal–oral route, often from contaminated hands, food, or surfaces.

🔷 The most effective control measure in long-term care is strict hand hygiene, especially before food handling and after toileting or brief changes.

🔷 Providing alcohol-based hand gel increases access and compliance with hand hygiene, which reduces organism transmission between residents and staff.

🔷 Hand hygiene is a core infection prevention strategy that interrupts contact spread in communal living settings.

🔷 The nurse should also reinforce hand hygiene technique and ensure gloves are used appropriately when exposure to stool is possible.

Instruct staff to use airborne precautions.

🔷E. coli is not transmitted through airborne particles.

🔷It is typically spread by contact with contaminated stool or surfaces.

Administer prophylactic antiviral medication to the residents.

🔷E. coli is a bacterium, not a virus, so antivirals are ineffective.

🔷Prophylactic medication is not a standard prevention approach for controlling E. coli spread in facilities.

Direct staff to rinse their hands for 10 seconds after washing with soap.

🔷Effective handwashing requires at least 20 seconds of friction with soap and water.

🔷Ten seconds is too short to reliably remove organisms.


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3 :

1 week ago

Parents report 2-day history of fever, congestion, and cough. Toddler fussy, moderate amount of clear, thick nasal drainage noted. Frequent loose, nonproductive cough. Lungs sound clear. Respirations easy and unlabored.

Today

Parents report toddler continues with a fever and is now vomiting and difficult to arouse. Parents report administering aspirin and acetaminophen alternately during the past week. Toddler lethargic and frequently vomiting small amounts of clear fluid. Respirations easy and unlabored, nonproductive cough noted. Mucus membranes slightly dry. Parents report no void today.

1 week ago

Heart rate 114/min

Respiratory rate 30/min

Temperature 38° C (100.4° F)

Today

Heart rate 120/min

Respiratory rate 22/min

Temperature 39° C (102.2° F)

1 week ago

Treat with antipyretics.

Encourage fluid intake.

Return to office if manifestations worsen.

Start prescription for oseltamivir for 5 days.

1 week ago

Influenza A NP swab: positive (negative)

Influenza B NP swab: negative (negative)


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The nurse recognizes that the toddler has likely developeddue to .


Hint : 🧠Aspirin + flu = Reye.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: Reye syndrome
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: aspirin administration

Rationale :

🔷 The toddler had confirmed Influenza A, and the parents report giving aspirin, which is strongly associated with Reye syndrome in children with viral illness.

🔷 Reye syndrome causes acute hepatic dysfunction and cerebral edema, which can present as vomiting, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness.

🔷 The child is now difficult to arouse and frequently vomiting, which are red flags for neurologic compromise rather than uncomplicated flu.

🔷 The report of no void today plus dry mucous membranes suggests worsening systemic illness and possible dehydration, increasing urgency for evaluation.

🔷 This situation requires immediate escalation because Reye syndrome can rapidly progress to seizures, coma, and life-threatening intracranial pressure.

Bronchitis

🔷Bronchitis usually presents with worsening productive cough, wheezing, or respiratory distress, not profound lethargy and repeated vomiting.

🔷The toddler’s respirations are easy and unlabored with clear lungs, making bronchitis less supported.

Gastroenteritis

🔷Gastroenteritis can cause vomiting and dehydration, but it does not typically cause a child to become difficult to arouse following aspirin use with influenza.

🔷The clinical picture is more consistent with a serious complication linked to aspirin + viral infection.

oseltamivir administration

🔷Oseltamivir may cause mild GI upset, but it does not explain progressive lethargy and significant neurologic changes.

🔷The highest-risk trigger here is aspirin exposure during a viral illness.

acetaminophen administration

🔷Acetaminophen is the recommended antipyretic for children and is not linked to Reye syndrome.

🔷Toxicity would require excessive dosing and typically presents with liver injury signs rather than this classic aspirin-viral pattern.


Distractor Analysis :

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4 :

Hint : 🔥PASS: Pull first.

Correct Answers:

  • Pull the pin out of the extinguisher.


Rationale :

🔷 After activating the alarm, the nurse should use the PASS method: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep.

🔷 Pulling the pin breaks the tamper seal and unlocks the handle so the extinguisher can discharge.

🔷 This is the first operational step required before aiming or squeezing can be effective.

🔷 Because the smoke is coming from an electrical outlet, the nurse must act quickly while keeping a safe exit route behind them.

🔷 Correct extinguisher technique helps control small fires while protecting staff and clients from injury and smoke exposure.

Use a Class B fire extinguisher.

🔷Class B is for flammable liquids (gasoline, oil), not electrical equipment.

🔷An outlet fire is an electrical (Class C) fire requiring the correct extinguisher type.

Aim the extinguisher's hose at the top of the flames.

🔷The nozzle should be aimed at the base of the fire to cut off the fuel source effectively.

🔷Aiming at the top can spread flames and reduce extinguishing success.

Use an up-and-down vertical motion to extinguish the fire.

🔷The correct technique is to sweep side-to-side across the base of the fire.

🔷Vertical motion is less effective and can miss the burning source area.


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5 :

Initial visit

Client presents for evaluation of manifestations of depression. Client reports insomnia, significant fatigue, difficulty concentrating, and feeling sad for the past several weeks. Client also states they have unintentionally lost 4.54 kg (10 lb) in the past couple of months. Client reports no suicidal thoughts or a history of self-harm.

Follow-up visit

4 weeks later

Client received a prescription for citalopram at a previous visit a month ago and reports taking the medication as prescribed. Client also reports they researched St. John's Wort and started taking it about 1 week ago because they were not feeling any better. Client states, "I have also had heartburn, so I am taking famotidine every day."

Initial visit

Client has a history of chronic migraine headaches and scoliosis. Client had an appendectomy at 15 years of age. No other hospitalizations or surgeries. No known allergies. One of client's parents has diabetes mellitus type 2. The other parent has anxiety disorder and depressive disorder. Their older sibling has no known chronic illnesses.

Graphic record

Initial visit:

Height 165 cm (65 in)

Weight 62.1 kg (137 lb)

BMI 22.8

Follow-up visit, 4 weeks later

Weight 60.3 kg (133 lb) BMI 22.1

Vital Signs

Initial visit

Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)

Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg

Heart rate 81/min

Respiratory rate 15/min

Oxygen saturation 100% on room air

Follow-up visit, 4 weeks later

Temperature 37.3° C (99.1° F)

Blood pressure 128/84 mm Hg

Heart rate 95/min

Respiratory rate 16/min

Oxygen saturation 100% on room air


Drag 1 condition and 1 client finding to fill in each blank in the following sentence. The client is at risk for developing due to.


Hint : 🌿 Herbs + SSRI = serotonin risk.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: serotonin Syndrome
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: an interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort

Rationale :

🔷 Citalopram is an SSRI that increases serotonin levels to treat depression, and effects may take 4–6 weeks to fully improve symptoms.

🔷 St. John’s Wort also increases serotonergic activity and can interact with SSRIs, causing dangerously high serotonin levels.

🔷 Combining these increases the risk for serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition.

🔷 The nurse should recognize this as a priority medication-safety issue and instruct the client to stop the herb and notify the provider immediately.

🔷 Early signs include agitation, confusion, sweating, tachycardia, diarrhea, tremor, and hyperreflexia, which require urgent evaluation if present.

anticholinergic toxicity

🔷Anticholinergic toxicity is linked to medications with strong anticholinergic properties (e.g., TCAs, antihistamines), not SSRIs like citalopram.

🔷The key risk cue here is a serotonergic herb, not anticholinergic medication exposure.

severe neutropenia

🔷Severe neutropenia is most associated with certain antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine) and some chemotherapy agents, not citalopram or famotidine.

🔷 The client’s presentation and medication list do not support a high neutropenia risk.

metabolic syndrome

🔷Metabolic syndrome is commonly related to second-generation antipsychotics, long-term weight gain, and insulin resistance.

🔷While family history is important, it does not represent the immediate medication-related risk shown in this scenario.

hyperkalemia

🔷Hyperkalemia is typically linked to kidney disease or medications like ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and potassium-sparing diuretics.

🔷 None of the listed agents (citalopram, St. John’s Wort, famotidine) directly indicate hyperkalemia as the priority risk.

an adverse effect of famotidine

🔷Famotidine’s common effects (e.g., headache, mild GI changes) do not create the high-risk emergency pattern seen with serotonergic overload.

🔷It does not explain the major safety concern in this medication combination.

an interaction between citalopram and famotidine

🔷This combination is not the classic high-risk interaction in depression management compared with serotonergic herb use.

🔷The major danger in this case is adding St. John’s Wort to an SSRI.

a family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus

🔷Family history increases long-term cardiometabolic risk, but it does not identify the most urgent medication-related complication.

🔷 The scenario highlights an immediate interaction risk rather than chronic metabolic risk.

an adverse effect of citalopram

🔷While SSRIs can cause GI effects and insomnia, the client’s major risk comes from combining serotonergic agents.

🔷 The herb-SSRI interaction is more dangerous than typical SSRI side effects.


Distractor Analysis :

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6 :

Hint : 🗣️ Swallowing = speech-path.

Correct Answers:

  • Speech therapist


Rationale :

✅ A speech-language pathologist (speech therapist) is the specialist who evaluates and treats dysphagia because swallowing is a complex neuromuscular function.

✅ They perform a structured swallow assessment to identify aspiration risk and which textures/liquids are safest.

✅ They recommend diet modifications (e.g., thickened liquids, puree) and safe-swallow techniques (chin-tuck, small bites, pacing).

✅ They also guide swallowing exercises to improve oral-motor control and reduce choking episodes.

✅ Early referral helps prevent serious complications like aspiration pneumonia, malnutrition, and dehydration.

Occupational therapist

✅OT focuses on ADLs (dressing, feeding mechanics, adaptive devices) and functional independence.

✅While OT may help with self-feeding skills, they are not the primary provider for swallow physiology evaluation.

Respiratory therapist

✅RT manages airway/oxygenation, breathing treatments, and ventilatory support.

✅They do not assess the oral/pharyngeal swallowing mechanism or prescribe swallow strategies.

Pharmacist

✅Pharmacists focus on medication safety, interactions, and dosage optimization.

✅They can suggest alternate medication forms, but they do not perform swallow evaluations or therapy.


Distractor Analysis :

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7 :

Hint : 🍊 Iron loves vitamin C.

Correct Answers:

  • "I should take this medication between meals."


Rationale :

💎 Taking ferrous sulfate between meals improves iron absorption because food can reduce absorption.

💎 Iron is absorbed best in an acidic environment, so taking it with vitamin C/juice can enhance effectiveness.

💎 This is important in pregnancy because iron supports maternal RBC production and fetal growth.

💎 The client should expect possible GI effects (constipation, nausea), and stools often become dark/greenish-black, not loose yellow.

💎 Correct timing helps prevent persistent iron-deficiency anemia, which can worsen fatigue and reduce oxygen-carrying capacity.

“I can take this medication with caffeinated beverages.”

💎Caffeine (and tea/coffee tannins) can decrease iron absorption.

💎Teaching should emphasize avoiding coffee/tea close to the iron dose.

“I should take this medication with milk.” (Incorrect):

💎Calcium in milk interferes with iron absorption and reduces the therapeutic benefit.

💎Iron should be separated from calcium-rich foods/supplements when possible.

“I might have loose, yellow stools while taking this medication.” (Incorrect):

💎Iron more commonly causes dark stools and constipation, not loose yellow stools.

💎Loose stools would require follow-up because it is not a typical expected effect.


Distractor Analysis :

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8 :

Hint : 🩸AP = simple tasks.

Correct Answers:

  • Obtain the client's blood glucose level.


Rationale :

🔷 Measuring a capillary blood glucose is a routine, noninvasive, standard procedure that can be safely delegated to an assistive personnel (AP).

🔷 This task follows a predictable step-by-step process and does not require clinical judgment or interpretation.

🔷 The nurse remains responsible for analyzing the result, recognizing abnormal values, and determining next actions.

🔷 Delegation supports safe workflow while ensuring the nurse focuses on assessment, teaching, and decision-making.

🔷 The nurse must confirm the AP reports the number promptly and documents according to policy.

Provide education on carbohydrate counting.

🔷 Teaching requires nursing knowledge and evaluation of understanding, which is RN scope.

🔷 It involves individualized instruction based on diet, meds, and glucose trends.

Interpret the need to administer insulin. (Incorrect):

🔷 Interpreting insulin need requires clinical judgment, assessment, and knowledge of protocols.

🔷APs cannot decide medication necessity or dosing.

Instruct the client on the use of a glucometer. (Incorrect):

🔷Teaching a client to use a glucometer is patient education, requiring assessment of readiness and return demonstration.

🔷This must be done by the nurse (or qualified educator), not AP.


Distractor Analysis :

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9 :

Hint : ❤️ High BP = silent risk.

Correct Answers:

  • Blood pressure 144/92 mm Hg


Rationale :

🟣 A blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg is elevated (hypertensive range) and requires follow-up because persistent hypertension increases risk for stroke, heart disease, and kidney damage.

🟣 The nurse should recheck the BP (correct cuff size, proper positioning, rest period) to confirm accuracy.

🟣 If confirmed, the nurse should assess for symptoms (headache, vision changes, chest pain) and review risk factors and medications.

🟣 Elevated BP often requires provider notification and a plan for lifestyle modification and/or treatment.

🟣 Early identification is key because hypertension can be silent yet cause long-term complications.

Temperature 37.7° C (100° F)

🟣This is a low-grade elevation and may occur with mild illness, exertion, or environmental factors.

🟣It may warrant monitoring and symptom assessment, but it is less urgent than a hypertensive BP reading.

Respiratory rate 12/min

🟣12/min is within the normal adult range (12–20/min).

🟣Follow-up is not required unless paired with abnormal work of breathing or altered mental status.

Oxygen saturation 96%

🟣96% is generally a normal SpO₂ for most clients on room air.

🟣No immediate follow-up is needed without respiratory distress or chronic lung disease considerations.


Distractor Analysis :

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10 :

Hint : 🧷 Clingy, needs reassurance.

Correct Answers:

  • The client is submissive to others.


Rationale :

🔶 Dependent personality disorder is characterized by an excessive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive and clinging behavior.

🔶 Clients often have difficulty making everyday decisions without reassurance and may fear abandonment.

🔶 They commonly allow others to assume responsibility for major areas of life because of low self-confidence.

🔶 They may tolerate poor treatment to maintain support due to intense separation anxiety.

🔶 Recognizing this pattern helps guide interventions that build assertiveness and independent coping.

The client exhibits splitting behaviors.

🔶Splitting (idealizing/devaluing others) is more associated with borderline personality disorder.

🔶It reflects unstable relationships rather than submissive dependence.

The client is preoccupied with orderliness.

🔶Preoccupation with orderliness/perfectionism aligns with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD).

🔶That pattern centers on control and rigidity, not reliance on others.

The client is suspicious of others.

🔶Suspiciousness and mistrust align with paranoid personality disorder.

🔶Dependent PD is typically fear-based and approval-seeking rather than mistrustful.


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Total Questions: 10

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