1 :

Postoperative day 2, 0800

Client oriented to person, place, time, and situation, answers questions appropriately, and moves all extremities to command. Guarded with left leg movement, reports pain. Sinus rhythm, S1, S2. Pulses palpable 2+ to all extremities, capillary refill less than 2 seconds. Respirations even, unlabored. Chest clear on auscultation. No cough noted. Bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Client tolerating diet with no nausea/vomiting. No bowel movement since surgery. Reports no difficulty with urination. Clear, yellow urine. Reports pain of 8 on a 0 to 10 scale in left leg. Client was last medicated for pain at 0300 with acetaminophen, states, "It didn't help at all." Left knee area edematous, serous sanguineous drainage on. dressing. Dressing removed. Staples intact, edges pulling apart approximately 2 cm (0.79 in) on the top of the incision between staples. Remainder of the incision well-approximated. Incisional area irritated and warm, with purulent drainage. Client reports tenderness to area. Clean dressing reapplied. 

0830

Report to provider about client's assessment and changes in vital signs. Prescriptions received. 

Postoperative day 2, 0015

Temperature 37.2°C (99° F)

Heart rate 84/min

Respiratory rate 20/min

Blood pressure 133/54 mmHg

Oxygen saturation 98% on room air

0730

Temperature 38.4°C (101.1° F)

Heart rate 94/min

Respiratory rate 24/min

Blood pressure 123/54 mmHg

Oxygen saturation 96% on room air

Postoperative day 2

0840

Culture and sensitivity of incisional wound

Irrigate wound with normal saline

Pack open areas of incision with moistened gauze

CBC

Basic metabolic profile

Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every 12 hr

Acetaminophen 325 mg every 4 hr PRN pain or fever greater than or equal to 38.9° C (102° F)

Bisacodyl 10 mg PO daily

Oxycodone 10 mg PO stat


Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The nurse should firstthen


Hint : 🟩 Always culture before antibiotics.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: initiate ciprofloxacin
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: culture surgical wound

Rationale :

🟥 The nurse must obtain the culture of the surgical wound before administering antibiotics to ensure accurate identification of the causative organism.

🟥 Starting antibiotics before collecting a specimen can alter bacterial growth and lead to inaccurate culture and sensitivity results, affecting appropriate treatment.

🟥 The client shows clear signs of postoperative wound infection, including purulent drainage, warmth, tenderness, and a rising temperature.

🟥 A culture is a time-sensitive intervention because the provider needs the organism identified to adjust therapy if needed.

🟥 Once the specimen is collected, the nurse should then promptly initiate ciprofloxacin to begin treating the infection.

🟥 This sequence aligns with infection control principles and evidence-based postoperative wound care.

administer oxycodone

🟥 Pain management is important but not a priority when infection assessment must occur before antibiotics.

🟥 Giving opioids first delays the critical action of collecting the culture.

administer acetaminophen

🟥 Treating fever does not address the source of infection.

🟥 Fever reduction should occur after diagnostic steps that guide treatment.

obtain BMP

🟥 A BMP is not the priority over obtaining a wound culture in a client with a suspected postoperative infection.

🟥 Laboratory screening does not replace time-sensitive culture collection.

obtain CBC

🟥 Although helpful to assess WBC count, this test does not need to occur before culture collection.

🟥 Delaying culture collection compromises diagnostic accuracy.

pack open areas of the incision

🟥 Wound care should occur only after cultures are collected and antibiotics started.

🟥 Packing is supportive care, not a priority over initiating antimicrobial therapy.

administer bisacodyl

🟥 Constipation is non-urgent and not related to the infectious process.

🟥 This does not help stabilize the client or prevent further deterioration.


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2 :

Day 1

Client is postoperative from abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy. Past surgical history includes cesarean birth times two. Medical history of GERD. Client has an allergy to penicillin and sulfa drugs. Alert and oriented. Moves all extremities. No vaginal bleeding. Abdominal dressing dry and intact. Hypoactive bowel sounds. Indwelling urinary catheter in place draining clear yellow urine.

 Day 3
Prepare client for discharge to home.

Urinary catheter to remain in place until follow-up appointment next week.

Medications

Esomeprazole 40 mg PO daily

Estradiol 1 mg PO daily

Ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO every 12 hr for 7 days

Oxycodone 5 mg PO every 6 hr

PRN for 3 days

Docusate sodium 100 mg PO twice daily

Day 3

WBC 12,500 mm³ (5,000 to 10,000 mm³)

Hgb 11.2 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL)

Hct 38% (37% to 47%)

Urinalysis pH 6.3 (4.6 to 8)

Specific gravity 1.012 (1.010 to 1.025)

Leukocyte esterase: Positive (Negative)

Nitrite: Positive (Negative)

Protein: Negative (Negative)

Glucose: Negative (Negative)

Ketones: Negative (None)

Bilirubin: Negative (None)


The nurse is reinforcing teaching to the client about adverse effects of their discharge medications. The nurse should reinforce with the client that they are at risk of developingdue to theirmedication.


Hint : 🎯 Antibiotic use → risk of resistant infections.

Correct Answers

  • Blank 1 Correct Option: methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
  • Blank 2 Correct Option: antibiotic

Rationale :

🟦 Antibiotic therapy such as ciprofloxacin increases the client’s risk for developing antibiotic-resistant organisms, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

🟦 The overuse or prolonged use of antibiotics disrupts normal flora and creates an environment where resistant bacteria can thrive.

🟦 This client is receiving a 7-day course of ciprofloxacin, which contributes to bacterial resistance risk and requires patient education.

🟦 MRSA infections are harder to treat, spread more easily, and can cause serious postoperative complications.

🟦 The nurse should reinforce proper medication use, hygiene practices, and infection-prevention measures to reduce MRSA risk.

🟦 Teaching the relationship between antibiotic use and resistant organisms helps improve adherence and safety after discharge.

dry skin – hormone replacement

🟦 Hormone replacement therapy does not commonly cause dry skin; it more often improves vasomotor and skin symptoms.

🟦 This adverse effect is unrelated to the client’s current therapy.

rhinorrhea – anti-reflux

🟦 Esomeprazole (anti-reflux) does not cause rhinorrhea.

🟦 PPIs affect gastric acid secretion, not respiratory symptoms.

tachypnea – pain medication

🟦 Opioids like oxycodone decrease respiratory rate and may cause hypoventilation—not tachypnea.

🟦 This makes the pairing inappropriate.

osteoporosis – hormone replacement

🟦 Estradiol prevents bone loss and is used to reduce osteoporosis risk.

🟦 It does not increase the risk.

adverse effects related to stool softener

🟦 Docusate causes mild gastrointestinal effects, not the conditions listed.

🟦 No matching condition in the list corresponds to stool softener use.


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3 :

Hint : 💡 Think: nasal spray → improve absorption with gentle massage.

Correct Answers:

  • "Massage your nose gently after medication administration."


Rationale :

🟪 Intranasal vitamin B₁₂ requires adequate mucosal absorption, and gentle massage of the nose helps distribute the medication across the nasal mucosa for optimal uptake.

🟪 This improves the effectiveness of therapy for clients with malabsorption syndrome, who cannot absorb B₁₂ adequately through the gastrointestinal tract.

🟪 Gentle massage also prevents medication runoff from the nostril, ensuring the full therapeutic dose is absorbed.

🟪 Intranasal formulations depend on contact time with the mucosa, making post-administration massage an important step.

🟪 Proper technique reduces risk of treatment failure and prevents recurrence of pernicious anemia symptoms.

🟪 Teaching this ensures the client achieves stable and consistent B₁₂ levels.

“Take this medication once per day.”

🟪 Intranasal vitamin B₁₂ is administered once weekly, not daily.

🟪 Daily use can cause mucosal irritation and is unnecessary for maintaining adequate B₁₂ levels.

“Drink a hot liquid after administering the medication.”

🟪 Hot liquids can increase nasal blood flow and cause medication to drain or be absorbed unevenly.

🟪 This reduces the medication’s effectiveness and is not recommended.

“Store this medication in the refrigerator.”

🟪 Intranasal vitamin B₁₂ should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.

🟪 Cold temperature can alter spray consistency and reduce proper delivery


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4 :

Hint : 💡 Think: prevent skin irritation → rotate sites.

Correct Answers:

  • Place the patch on a different site for each application.


Rationale :

🟧 Nitroglycerin patches must be applied to a different site each day to prevent skin irritation and improve medication absorption.

🟧 Rotating sites also decreases the risk of developing localized dermatitis, which can occur with repeated exposure to the same area.

🟧 Transdermal patches deliver continuous vasodilation to prevent angina attacks, and absorption can be impaired if the skin becomes irritated.

🟧 Proper site rotation allows consistent therapeutic levels and reduces complications.

🟧 Rotation also helps the nurse or client assess the skin for any adverse reactions such as redness or breakdown.

🟧 This teaching reinforces safe self-administration of long-term nitrate therapy.

Cover the patch with a dry dressing.

🟧 Covering a nitroglycerin patch can trap heat and increase systemic absorption, risking hypotension or headache.

🟧 The patch is designed to remain uncovered.

Apply another patch if experiencing chest pain.

🟧 Nitroglycerin patches are preventive, not for acute chest pain relief.

🟧 Acute pain should be treated with sublingual nitroglycerin, not an extra patch.

Leave each patch in place for 24 hr.

🟧 Nitroglycerin patches should be removed after 12–14 hours to prevent tolerance.

🟧 A nitrate-free period daily is required to maintain effectiveness.


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5 :

Hint : 💡 Think: theophylline → bronchodilator.

Correct Answers:

  • Dilates bronchioles


Rationale :

🟦 Theophylline is a bronchodilator in the methylxanthine class, and its primary therapeutic effect is bronchial smooth muscle relaxation, which leads to bronchodilation.

🟦 This opens narrowed airways and improves airflow for clients with asthma, COPD, or other chronic respiratory conditions.

🟦 By reducing airway resistance, theophylline helps decrease work of breathing and improves oxygenation.

🟦 The medication works through phosphodiesterase inhibition, increasing cyclic AMP to maintain bronchodilation.

🟦 While it has mild anti-inflammatory properties, its main purpose remains airway dilation, not secretion thinning or leukotriene modification.

🟦 Teaching should emphasize expected breathing improvement, as well as monitoring for toxicity due to its narrow therapeutic range.

Reduces inflammation

🟦 Theophylline is not a primary anti-inflammatory medication; corticosteroids perform this function.

🟦 It cannot be relied upon to control airway inflammation in asthma.

Loosens secretions

🟦 Loosening mucus is the action of expectorants or mucolytics, not theophylline.

🟦 Theophylline does not modify mucus viscosity.

Blocks leukotrienes

🟦 This action describes leukotriene modifiers such as montelukast, not theophylline.

🟦 Theophylline does not affect leukotriene pathways.


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6 :

Hint : 💡 Think: digoxin → vision changes + GI upset + rhythm issues.

Correct Answers:

  • Blurred vision
  • Nausea
  • Dysrhythmia


Rationale :

🟩 This is particularly important because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index.

🟩 Nausea is one of the most common gastrointestinal signs of digoxin toxicity.

🟩 Digoxin stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone, resulting in nausea, anorexia, or vomiting.

🟩 GI symptoms typically appear before cardiac conduction issues, making them useful early indicators.

🟩 The nurse should closely assess new GI disturbances in clients on digoxin.

🟩 Prompt recognition prevents worsening toxicity and prevents arrhythmias.

🟩 Even mild nausea in a digoxin user should trigger evaluation of serum digoxin levels.

Dysrhythmia

🟩 Dysrhythmias are the most dangerous adverse effect of digoxin and often occur in toxicity.

🟩 Digoxin increases intracellular calcium in cardiac tissue, altering AV node conduction and predisposing the client to ectopic beats or heart block.

🟩 Brady-arrhythmias, tachyarrhythmias, or AV dissociation can occur.

🟩 The nurse must carefully monitor apical pulse and rhythm before each dose.

🟩 New-onset irregular rhythms require immediate evaluation of potassium levels and serum digoxin levels.

🟩 Cardiac dysrhythmias are a leading cause of hospitalization in clients with digoxin toxicity.

Hyperactivity

🟩 Digoxin toxicity causes fatigue, weakness, and lethargy, not hyperactivity.

🟩 Increased CNS stimulation is not associated with this medication.

Increased appetite

🟩 Digoxin more commonly causes anorexia, especially early in toxicity progression.

🟩 Increased appetite is contradictory to expected effects.


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7 :

Hint : 💡 Aldosterone blocker → potassium goes UP.

Correct Answers:

  • Hyperkalemia


Rationale :

🟨 Eplerenone is a selective aldosterone receptor blocker, which decreases sodium and water retention while reducing potassium excretion, placing the client at risk for hyperkalemia.

🟨 By blocking aldosterone, the distal renal tubules retain more potassium, causing serum levels to rise.

🟨 Elevated potassium can lead to dangerous cardiac conduction abnormalities, including peaked T waves, widened QRS complexes, and arrhythmias.

🟨 The nurse should routinely monitor serum potassium, especially during the first weeks of therapy or when the client is also taking ACE inhibitors or potassium supplements.

🟨 Clients should also be taught to avoid potassium-rich foods and salt substitutes containing potassium.

🟨 Early recognition of hyperkalemia prevents progression to life-threatening cardiac complications.

Hematuria

🟨 Hematuria is not associated with eplerenone therapy.

🟨 This finding typically relates to infections, stones, or renal pathology, not aldosterone blockade.

Hypernatremia

🟨 Eplerenone lowers sodium levels by promoting sodium excretion, so hypernatremia is unlikely.

🟨 Hyponatremia is a more plausible but still uncommon effect.

Constipation

🟨 Constipation is not a known adverse effect of eplerenone.

🟨 Other antihypertensives like calcium channel blockers are more likely to cause constipation.


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8 :

Hint : 💡Think liver → alcohol + isoniazid = high risk.

Correct Answers:

  • Determine the client's daily alcohol intake.


Rationale :

🟥 Isoniazid (INH) is hepatotoxic, and assessing the client’s alcohol intake is essential because alcohol significantly increases the risk of liver damage during therapy.

🟥 Clients who consume alcohol daily or heavily are at the highest risk for developing isoniazid-induced hepatitis, which can progress to liver failure if not identified early.

🟥 Knowing alcohol habits helps the nurse reinforce the need for strict alcohol avoidance while taking the medication.

🟥 The nurse must also monitor for early symptoms of hepatotoxicity such as fatigue, jaundice, nausea, and dark urine.

🟥 This assessment supports safe medication therapy and prevents severe complications.

🟥 Because liver toxicity is the primary safety concern with INH, alcohol screening is a priority action.

Tell the client to expect red-orange colored urine.

🟥 Red-orange urine is an adverse effect of rifampin, not isoniazid.

🟥 Giving incorrect teaching could confuse the client about expected reactions.

Reinforce teaching about a low-calorie diet.

🟥 INH therapy does not require a low-calorie diet.

🟥 Instead, clients may need vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplementation to prevent neuropathy.

Instruct the client to have a yearly tuberculin skin test.

🟥 Skin testing is not needed once tuberculosis is diagnosed and treatment has started.

🟥 The test will remain positive for life and is no longer useful for evaluation.


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9 :

Hint : 💡 Think: sulfa allergy → avoid furosemide.

Correct Answers:

  • Furosemide


Rationale :

🟪 Furosemide is contraindicated in clients with a history of Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) from sulfonamide medications because furosemide is a sulfonamide-derived loop diuretic.

🟪 Clients who react severely to sulfonamide antibiotics such as sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim are at increased risk of cross-reactivity with sulfonamide-based non-antibiotic medications.

🟪 SJS is a life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction, and even a small re-exposure to sulfa-related drugs can trigger another severe dermatologic reaction.

🟪 The nurse must recognize hidden sulfonamide ingredients in commonly used medications to prevent repeat exposure.

🟪 Furosemide should be replaced with a safer diuretic alternative if needed, such as ethacrynic acid, which does not contain sulfonamide structure.

🟪 Preventing re-exposure to sulfonamide-containing medications is a critical safety priority in clients with a past SJS episode.

Prednisone

🟪 Prednisone is a corticosteroid and does not contain sulfonamide components.

🟪 It is sometimes used to manage inflammatory reactions, not cause SJS recurrence.

Lansoprazole

🟪 Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and is not chemically related to sulfonamides.

🟪 There is no known cross-reactivity with sulfa allergies.

Digoxin

🟪 Digoxin has no sulfonamide structure and is not associated with SJS recurrence in sulfa-sensitive clients.

🟪 It is safe for use regarding sulfonamide allergy.


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10 :

Hint : 💡 GLP-1 agonists — think “abdomen pain = pancreatitis.”

Correct Answers:

  • Abdominal pain


Rationale :

🟧 Exenatide is a GLP-1 agonist, and one of its most serious adverse effects is acute pancreatitis, which presents with severe abdominal pain that may radiate to the back.

🟧 This pain is often sudden, persistent, and unrelieved by antacids or rest, making it a medical emergency.

🟧 Withholding the medication prevents worsening pancreatic inflammation, which can progress to necrotizing pancreatitis if not promptly addressed.

🟧 The nurse should immediately notify the provider so diagnostic testing such as serum amylase and lipase can be obtained.

🟧 Recognizing abdominal pain as a warning sign ensures early intervention and prevents potentially life-threatening complications.

🟧 Exenatide should not be resumed until pancreatitis is ruled out or resolved.

Loss of appetite

🟧 Mild appetite reduction is a common and expected effect of GLP-1 agonists and is not typically dangerous.

🟧 This does not require withholding the dose.

Muscle weakness

🟧 Muscle weakness is not a known serious adverse effect of exenatide.

🟧 It may relate to glucose fluctuations but does not indicate pancreatitis.

Heartburn

🟧 Heartburn can occur from delayed gastric emptying, but it is not a sign of an emergency.

🟧 It does not require holding the medication unless severe or persistent.


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Total Questions: 10

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