Question

A nurse is planning care for a client who has quadriplegia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a pulmonary embolism (PE)?(Select all that apply.)

Answer 1

Correct Answers:

Apply elastic compression stockings.
Perform passive range of motion exercises.
Assess legs for redness.

Rationale :

Apply elastic compression stockings.

💠 Clients with quadriplegia are at very high risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to immobility and venous stasis.

💠 Elastic compression stockings help promote venous return from the lower extremities by applying graduated external pressure.

💠 This reduces blood pooling in the legs and lowers the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and, subsequently, pulmonary embolism (PE).

💠 Use of stockings is an evidence-based prophylactic measure in immobilized patients.

💠 Therefore, applying compression stockings is an appropriate intervention to help prevent PE.

Perform passive range of motion exercises.

💠 Passive range of motion (PROM) maintains joint mobility and promotes circulation in clients who cannot move independently.

💠 PROM helps prevent venous stasis, which is a major risk factor for DVT in quadriplegic clients.

💠 Increased blood flow from limb movement reduces clot formation in deep veins.

💠 This intervention also helps prevent contractures and maintains musculoskeletal function.

💠 Thus, PROM is an important nursing action to help reduce PE risk in immobile clients.

Assess legs for redness.

💠 Regular assessment of the lower extremities for redness, warmth, swelling, or tenderness helps detect early signs of DVT.

💠 Early recognition of a DVT allows timely treatment to prevent clot migration to the lungs and development of PE.

💠 Ongoing monitoring is essential because quadriplegic clients may not feel pain due to sensory deficits.

💠 Assessment is part of VTE surveillance, a key role of the nurse in high-risk patients.

💠 Therefore, assessing the legs supports early detection and prevention of PE.

Place pillows under the client's knees when in bed.

💠 Placing pillows directly under the knees can compress blood vessels and reduce venous return from the lower extremities.

💠 This promotes venous stasis, which increases the risk of DVT formation.

💠 For PE prevention, positioning should avoid prolonged knee flexion and direct compression behind the knees.

💠 Elevation of legs should be done in a way that does not obstruct venous flow.

💠 Therefore, using pillows under the knees is contraindicated for PE prevention.

Massage the calves every shift.

💠 Massaging the calves in a client at risk for DVT is dangerous because it can dislodge an existing clot if one is present.

💠 A dislodged clot can travel to the pulmonary arteries and cause a pulmonary embolism, which may be fatal.

💠 Current guidelines specifically advise against calf massage in patients at risk for DVT or with suspected DVT.

💠 Instead, nurses should focus on prevention (compression, movement) and careful assessment.

💠 Thus, this action would increase, not decrease, the risk of PE.

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Answer 2

Correct Answers:

Vibration

Rationale :

🔷 Vibration is a key component of chest physiotherapy (CPT) and is used to help loosen secretions in the airways.

🔷 During vibration, the nurse applies rapid, fine shaking motions to the chest wall during exhalation, which helps move mucus toward larger airways.

🔷 Once secretions are mobilized, they can be more easily coughed or suctioned out.

🔷 This technique is especially useful in patients with respiratory infections who are having difficulty clearing mucus.

🔷 Therefore, vibration is the correct technique to enhance secretion removal during CPT.

High Fowler positioning.

🔷 High Fowler’s position improves lung expansion and helps with oxygenation, but it is not, by itself, a CPT technique.

🔷 While this position may make breathing easier and can help with drainage, it does not actively mobilize secretions like percussion or vibration.

🔷 It is supportive but does not replace specific airway clearance methods.

🔷 High Fowler’s is often used in respiratory distress, but that is not the focus of this question.

🔷 Thus, it is helpful for breathing but not the primary technique for secretion mobilization.

Auscultation.

🔷 Auscultation is an assessment technique, used to evaluate breath sounds and detect areas of decreased ventilation or adventitious sounds.

🔷 It does not directly help remove secretions from the lungs.

🔷 The nurse performs auscultation before and after CPT to assess effectiveness, but it is not the therapeutic intervention itself.

🔷 Its role is diagnostic, not airway-clearing.

🔷 Therefore, auscultation is important but does not constitute the CPT technique that mobilizes mucus.

Incentive spirometry.

🔷 Incentive spirometry promotes deep inspiration, alveolar expansion, and prevention of atelectasis.

🔷 It is mainly used after surgery or with immobility to improve lung expansion, not as a standard CPT technique.

🔷 Although it may indirectly help reduce infection risk by improving ventilation, it does not specifically loosen and mobilize secretions in the way vibration does.

🔷 It is a separate respiratory therapy intervention from percussion and vibration.

🔷 Therefore, it is not the best answer when the goal is secretion removal via CPT.

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Answer 3

Correct Answers:

Administration of corticosteroids and bronchodilators

Rationale :

🟢 The client is in respiratory distress with a background of coal exposure and smoking, suggesting possible underlying reactive airway or obstructive lung disease on top of pneumonia.

🟢 Bronchodilators help open narrowed airways, reduce wheezing and airflow limitation, and rapidly improve ventilation.

🟢 Corticosteroids decrease airway inflammation and edema, which can also worsen respiratory distress in the setting of infection and irritant exposure.

🟢 In an acute situation, improving airway patency and gas exchange is the immediate priority before or alongside other treatments.

🟢 Therefore, these medications address the client’s most urgent need: impaired breathing.

Completion of a 12-lead ECG.

🟢 A 12-lead ECG is helpful to evaluate cardiac function and exclude cardiac causes of dyspnea, such as ischemia.

🟢 However, this client’s primary problem is respiratory distress with pneumonia and known inhalation exposures.

🟢 An ECG does not directly treat or rapidly improve oxygenation or ventilation.

🟢 While it may be ordered, it is not the highest priority in the immediate stabilization of breathing.

🟢 The ABCs prioritize airway and breathing before detailed cardiac diagnostic testing.

Administration of antibiotics.

🟢 Antibiotics are essential in treating bacterial pneumonia and should be started promptly.

🟢 However, they do not provide immediate relief of respiratory distress because they take time to reduce bacterial load and inflammation.

🟢 In the acute phase, the greatest threat is impaired gas exchange, not the slow-acting bacterial process itself.

🟢 The nurse must first focus on immediate stabilization with respiratory support.

🟢 Therefore, while antibiotics are critical, they are not the single most urgent “immediate needs” intervention in this list.

Client education; avoidance of irritants.

🟢 Education about avoiding smoke and pollutants is important for long-term management and prevention of further lung damage.

🟢 However, this is clearly a health promotion and chronic care measure, not an acute stabilization intervention.

🟢 In respiratory distress, teaching is not the priority; maintaining airway and breathing is.

🟢 Client education can be done after the client’s condition has stabilized.

🟢 Therefore, this intervention is low priority compared with medications that improve airway function.

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Answer 4

Correct Answers:

Arterial blood gases

Rationale :

🟣 After a thoracotomy and lobectomy, the client is at high risk for impaired gas exchange due to loss of lung tissue, pain, anesthesia effects, and potential complications.

🟣 Arterial blood gases (ABGs) provide direct information on oxygenation (PaO₂), ventilation (PaCO₂), and acid–base balance, which are critical in the immediate postoperative period.

🟣 ABG results help identify hypoxemia, hypercapnia, or respiratory acidosis, guiding urgent respiratory interventions.

🟣 Monitoring ABGs is aligned with the ABCs priority framework, focusing on breathing and oxygenation.

🟣 Therefore, among the given choices, ABGs should receive the highest priority.

Pain level.

🟣 Adequate pain control is very important after thoracotomy because severe pain can impair deep breathing and coughing.

🟣 Uncontrolled pain can contribute to atelectasis and pneumonia, so it must be addressed.

🟣 However, pain is a secondary priority compared with immediate assessment of oxygenation and ventilation via ABGs.

🟣 The nurse should still assess pain, but life-threatening respiratory compromise takes precedence.

🟣 Therefore, pain level is high priority but not highest compared to breathing assessment.

Urinary output.

🟣 Urinary output reflects kidney perfusion and fluid status, both of which are important postoperative considerations.

🟣 However, in thoracic surgery, the most immediate threat is respiratory failure, not renal function.

🟣 A brief delay in assessing urine output is generally tolerated, whereas delayed recognition of hypoxemia may be fatal.

🟣 While urine output must be monitored, it falls below airway and breathing in the priority hierarchy.

🟣 Therefore, it is not the primary postoperative assessment in this scenario.

Chest tube drainage.

🟣 Chest tube drainage is very important to monitor for bleeding, air leaks, and proper lung re-expansion.

🟣 Excessive output or sudden changes could indicate hemorrhage or complications, requiring prompt response.

🟣 However, the client’s global gas exchange, measured by ABGs, is more directly tied to life-threatening hypoxia and ventilation failure.

🟣 ABGs reflect the integrated effect of surgery, pain, ventilation, and chest tube function on oxygenation.

🟣 Thus, while chest tube assessment is crucial, ABGs still hold the higher priority for immediate postoperative safety.

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Answer 5

Correct Answers:

Dyspnea
Clubbing of the fingers
Barrel chest

Rationale :

Dyspnea.

🟥 Emphysema is a form of COPD characterized by destruction of alveolar walls and decreased elastic recoil, leading to air trapping.

🟥 This causes chronic shortness of breath (dyspnea), especially with exertion, as gas exchange becomes less efficient.

🟥 Clients often report difficulty breathing and may use pursed-lip breathing to help exhale trapped air.

🟥 Dyspnea is one of the most common and distressing symptoms in emphysema.

🟥 Therefore, the nurse should absolutely expect to assess dyspnea in this client.

Clubbing of the fingers.

🟥 Clubbing is a physical finding associated with chronic hypoxia, which can develop in long-standing emphysema.

🟥 The tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips.

🟥 This occurs due to changes in the microvasculature in response to low oxygen levels over time.

🟥 Clients with chronic lung disease, including emphysema, may display this sign.

🟥 Thus, clubbing is an expected assessment finding in some clients with advanced emphysema.

Barrel chest.

🟥 A barrel chest results from hyperinflation of the lungs and increased anteroposterior (AP) diameter.

🟥 In emphysema, air trapping expands the thoracic cage, leading to a rounded, barrel-shaped chest.

🟥 This structural change is a classic sign of long-standing emphysematous COPD.

🟥 The chest wall becomes rigid, and the diaphragm flattens, affecting breathing mechanics.

🟥 Therefore, barrel chest is a key expected finding in emphysema.

Deep respirations.

🟥 Clients with emphysema typically have rapid, shallow respirations, not deep ones.

🟥 Because of air trapping and decreased lung elasticity, they struggle to fully exhale, making breathing less efficient.

🟥 The respiratory rate often increases to compensate for impaired gas exchange.

🟥 Deep respirations would not be typical in this chronic obstructive pattern.

🟥 Thus, deep respirations are not an expected finding in emphysema.

Bradycardia.

🟥 Chronic hypoxia in emphysema often leads to tachycardia, not bradycardia, as the heart attempts to increase oxygen delivery.

🟥 Low oxygen levels stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, raising heart rate.

🟥 Bradycardia would be unusual unless related to medications or conduction problems.

🟥 In respiratory distress, the body usually compensates with faster, not slower, heart rates.

🟥 Therefore, bradycardia is not typically expected in a client with emphysema.

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Answer 6

Correct Answers:

hoarseness.

Rationale :

🟨 Laryngeal cancer most commonly begins with persistent hoarseness or voice changes, especially in clients with a history of smoking or alcohol use.

🟨 The tumor often arises on the vocal cords, interfering with normal vibration and sound production.

🟨 Hoarseness lasting longer than 2 weeks is a red-flag symptom that requires evaluation by a provider.

🟨 Early identification at this stage improves prognosis and can allow more conservative treatment.

🟨 Therefore, hoarseness is classically the earliest reported manifestation of laryngeal cancer.

Weight loss.

🟨 Weight loss is generally a later sign of malignancy, often reflecting systemic effects, reduced intake, or difficulty swallowing.

🟨 In laryngeal cancer, weight loss usually appears after symptoms like hoarseness, dysphagia, or pain have persisted.

🟨 It is not typically the first complaint that brings the client to medical attention.

🟨 Using it as the earliest indicator could lead to missed opportunities for early diagnosis.

🟨 Therefore, weight loss is an important but late manifestation.

Dyspnea.

🟨 Dyspnea can occur when the laryngeal tumor becomes large enough to obstruct the airway or involve surrounding structures.

🟨 This is more common in advanced disease, not at the earliest stage.

🟨 Early cancers are often small and mainly affect the voice, not airway patency.

🟨 Waiting for dyspnea to appear before suspecting cancer would delay diagnosis.

🟨 Thus, dyspnea is a later, more serious manifestation, not the earliest.

Dysphagia.

🟨 Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, typically occurs when the tumor extends or grows large enough to interfere with the pharynx or esophagus.

🟨 Like dyspnea, it tends to be a later symptom, indicating progression.

🟨 Early laryngeal cancer is more likely to cause voice changes than swallowing problems.

🟨 Relying on dysphagia as the earliest indication may delay recognition.

🟨 Therefore, dysphagia is significant but not the first or earliest manifestation.

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Answer 7

Correct Answers:

No fluctuations in the water seal chamber

Rationale :

🔶 The water-seal chamber fluctuates (tidals) with inspiration and expiration when a chest tube is draining air or fluid from a non-expanded lung.

🔶 When fluctuations stop, it indicates that intrapleural pressure has stabilized, suggesting that the lung has fully re-expanded.

🔶 This is a key sign that the pleural space is no longer receiving air or fluid during breathing.

🔶 Absence of tidaling is one of the most reliable bedside markers of successful lung re-expansion.

🔶 Therefore, this finding most strongly supports that the lung has fully re-expanded.

Occasional bubbling in the water-seal chamber.

🔶 Occasional bubbling typically indicates air leak, coughing, or repositioning—not lung re-expansion.

🔶 Continuous bubbling suggests a persistent air leak, not recovery.

🔶 Bubbling is not used to determine whether the lung has healed or fully expanded.

🔶 Its presence can indicate ongoing movement of air through the pleural space.

🔶 Therefore, this finding does not indicate lung re-expansion.

Oxygen saturation of 95%.

🔶 Oxygen saturation is influenced by breathing pattern, underlying disease, and supplemental oxygen—not necessarily chest tube function.

🔶 A patient can have 95% SpO₂ even with a partially collapsed lung.

🔶 SpO₂ does not directly measure intrapleural pressure or lung inflation.

🔶 It is not a reliable sign for determining chest tube removal readiness.

🔶 Therefore, this finding is not a valid indicator of lung re-expansion.

No reports of pleuritic chest pain.

🔶 Pleuritic pain may decrease as inflammation improves, but this does not confirm lung re-expansion.

🔶 Lung collapse or residual pneumothorax can still be present without significant pain.

🔶 Pain is subjective and influenced by analgesics.

🔶 Chest tube functionality cannot be determined by symptoms alone.

🔶 Therefore, absence of pain is not a reliable objective indicator.

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Answer 8

Correct Answers:

"If I could lose about 50 pounds, I might stop having so many apneic episodes."

Rationale :

🔷 Obesity is one of the strongest risk factors for obstructive sleep apnea because it increases neck circumference and airway collapse.

🔷 Weight reduction decreases pressure on the upper airway during sleep, reducing obstruction frequency.

🔷 Many patients experience significant improvement or resolution of OSA after major weight loss.

🔷 Providers routinely recommend weight reduction as a first-line lifestyle intervention.

🔷 Therefore, this statement reflects accurate understanding of OSA management.

“I’ll sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night.”

🔷 Sedatives worsen OSA by relaxing airway structures, increasing obstruction and apnea frequency.

🔷 Sleeping pills suppress normal arousal mechanisms that protect the airway during apnea.

🔷 This can lead to longer apneic periods, hypoxemia, and dangerous complications.

🔷 Sedatives are contraindicated in untreated obstructive sleep apnea.

🔷 Thus, this answer demonstrates incorrect understanding.

“It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back.”

🔷 Sleeping supine actually worsens airway collapse because gravity pulls the tongue and soft palate backward.

🔷 Patients with OSA are encouraged to sleep on their side to improve airflow.

🔷 Positional therapy is a recognized intervention, but sleeping on the back is harmful.

🔷 Supine sleep may increase snoring and desaturation.

🔷 Therefore, this statement reflects incorrect teaching.

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Answer 9

Correct Answers:

A room with air exhaust directly to the outdoor environment

Rationale :

🟩 Clients with active tuberculosis require airborne precautions, which include placement in a negative-pressure room.

🟩 Room air must be vented directly outdoors or through HEPA filtration to prevent airborne mycobacteria from circulating.

🟩 This protects other patients and staff from aerosolized droplet nuclei.

🟩 Only this option meets airborne isolation requirements.

🟩 Therefore, the correct room assignment is a room with air exhaust to the outside.

A room in the ICU.

🟩 ICU rooms do not automatically meet airborne isolation standards.

🟩 Proximity to critically ill patients increases transmission risk.

🟩 The priority is airborne containment, not level of care.

🟩 ICU rooms may not have negative-pressure capability.

🟩 Therefore, this assignment is inappropriate.

A room with another nonsurgical client.

🟩 TB requires private isolation to prevent airborne spread.

🟩 Cohorting or shared rooms place other clients at immediate risk.

🟩 This violates airborne precaution protocols.

🟩 Patients with TB must not share rooms.

🟩 Therefore, this option is unsafe.

A room in view of the nurse’s station.

🟩 Location does not protect staff from airborne pathogens.

🟩 Airborne infection control requires environmental engineering—not visibility.

🟩 TB care is about ventilation, not proximity to nurses.

🟩 This does not meet airborne precaution standards.

🟩 Thus, it is not acceptable.

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Answer 10

Correct Answers:

"I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the steroid."

Rationale :

⭐ Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that opens the airways quickly, allowing improved airflow before other inhaled medications are given.

⭐ Administering the bronchodilator first helps enhance steroid deposition deep into the lungs, making the anti-inflammatory medication more effective.

⭐ This sequence reduces airway resistance, improves medication absorption, and prevents unnecessary delays in symptom relief.

⭐ In asthma treatment, nebulized steroids work best when the bronchi are already dilated, enhancing anti-inflammatory action.

⭐ Teaching clients this order improves medication effectiveness and helps prevent exacerbation episodes through proper therapy timing.

“I will administer the medications 10 minutes apart.”

⭐ Timing is less important than correct sequencing, and spacing medications by minutes does not replace giving the bronchodilator first.

⭐ Administering both medications without regard to sequence can limit steroid penetration into narrowed airways.

⭐ Asthma education emphasizes order, not a fixed “10-minute” interval.

⭐ A client may incorrectly delay needed bronchodilation if they focus on minutes instead of proper medication order.

⭐ This statement reflects misunderstanding of priority airway dilation in asthma therapy.

“I will use both medications immediately after exercising.”

⭐ Asthma medications are not routinely scheduled post-exercise, and this plan can lead to unnecessary steroid use.

⭐ Albuterol can be used before exercise in exercise-induced asthma, not after, to prevent bronchospasm.

⭐ Using steroid nebulizers after physical activity does not provide acute benefit and may promote improper medication timing.

⭐ Steroids are taken as part of prescribed maintenance therapy, not in response to activity.

⭐ This statement shows confusion between prophylactic and maintenance asthma medication use.

“If my breathing begins to feel tight, I will use the cromolyn immediately.”

⭐ Cromolyn is a mast-cell stabilizer and is not used for acute asthma symptoms.

⭐ It has slow onset, making it ineffective in treating bronchospasm or sudden airway tightness.

⭐ Using cromolyn during acute distress may delay needed rapid-acting bronchodilator treatment.

⭐ This indicates misunderstanding of which medications treat acute vs. chronic symptoms.

⭐ Clients using cromolyn incorrectly may risk worsening respiratory compromise.

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QLexNursing

1 :
A nurse is planning care for a client who has quadriplegia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a pulmonary embolism (PE)?(Select all that apply.)

2 :
A nurse is performing chest physiotherapy on a client who has a respiratory infection. To help with the removal of the secretions of the respiratory system, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

3 :
A client is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress coupled with bacterial pneumonia. The client has no medical history. However, the client works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which order based on the client's immediate needs?

4 :
A nurse in the post-anesthesia care unit is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thoracotomy and lobectomy. Which of the following postoperative assessments should the nurse give highest priority to?

5 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to assess in this client? (Select all that apply.)

6 :
A nurse is assessing a client who has a long history of smoking and is suspected of having laryngeal cancer. The nurse should anticipate that the client will report that her earliest manifestation was

7 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place to a closed chest drainage system. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client's lung has re-expanded?

8 :
A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements Indicates an understanding of the teaching?

9 :
A nurse is admitting a client who has active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following room assignments should the nurse make for the client?

10 :
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and new prescriptions for steroid and albuterol, both by nebulizer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

QLexNursing

1 : A nurse is planning care for a client who has quadriplegia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a pulmonary embolism (PE)?(Select all that apply.)

2 : A nurse is performing chest physiotherapy on a client who has a respiratory infection. To help with the removal of the secretions of the respiratory system, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

3 : A client is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress coupled with bacterial pneumonia. The client has no medical history. However, the client works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which order based on the client's immediate needs?

4 : A nurse in the post-anesthesia care unit is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thoracotomy and lobectomy. Which of the following postoperative assessments should the nurse give highest priority to?

5 : A nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to assess in this client? (Select all that apply.)

6 : A nurse is assessing a client who has a long history of smoking and is suspected of having laryngeal cancer. The nurse should anticipate that the client will report that her earliest manifestation was

7 : A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place to a closed chest drainage system. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client's lung has re-expanded?

8 : A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements Indicates an understanding of the teaching?

9 : A nurse is admitting a client who has active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following room assignments should the nurse make for the client?

10 : A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and new prescriptions for steroid and albuterol, both by nebulizer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

1 :
A nurse is planning care for a client who has quadriplegia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a pulmonary embolism (PE)?(Select all that apply.)

2 :
A nurse is performing chest physiotherapy on a client who has a respiratory infection. To help with the removal of the secretions of the respiratory system, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

3 :
A client is being treated in the ED for respiratory distress coupled with bacterial pneumonia. The client has no medical history. However, the client works in a coal mine and smokes 10 cigarettes a day. The nurse anticipates which order based on the client's immediate needs?

4 :
A nurse in the post-anesthesia care unit is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thoracotomy and lobectomy. Which of the following postoperative assessments should the nurse give highest priority to?

5 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to assess in this client? (Select all that apply.)

6 :
A nurse is assessing a client who has a long history of smoking and is suspected of having laryngeal cancer. The nurse should anticipate that the client will report that her earliest manifestation was

7 :
A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube in place to a closed chest drainage system. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client's lung has re-expanded?

8 :
A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements Indicates an understanding of the teaching?

9 :
A nurse is admitting a client who has active tuberculosis to a room on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following room assignments should the nurse make for the client?

10 :
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has asthma and new prescriptions for steroid and albuterol, both by nebulizer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?